Q. By what outward means are we given
redemption?
A. Christ gives redemption by His word, the sacraments & prayer.
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The above is a catechism question and answer by a well-known NEW SCHOOL Reformed Baptist.
The QnA are likely a DOWNGRADED perversion of this QnA by an OLD SCHOOL Particular Baptist.
Q. 95. What are the outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicates to us the benefits of redemption?
A. The outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicates to us the benefits of redemption are His ordinances, especially the word, Baptism, the Lord's Supper and Prayer; all which are made effectual to the elect for salvation. (Rom. 10:17; James 1-18; 1 Cor. 3:5; Acts 14:1; 2:41-42).
(Baptist Catechism by Benjamin Keach, 1677)
What do you think of the RB's question and answer?
If you have understood the gospel of Christ, the errors will glare* at you;
otherwise they are smooth words.
*glare - stare angrily or fiercely.
Archin asked:
Christ gives redemption, or God the Father
gives redemption?
Redemption is paid with His righteous life and blood on the cross.
Not sacraments, not prayers.
sing
Isa 1:18a "Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD..."
Let's consider the question first.
Q. By what outward means are we given redemption?
a. Some word meanings:
- "redemption" - deliverance, esp. from the just penalty of sin;
finally from the eternal lake of fire. This redemption is by Christ's life and
death alone: Heb 9:12 "Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by
his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained
eternal redemption for us."
- "means" - something used to attain/achieve a result; in this case,
the result is given redemption.
b. The question assumes/presupposes a few things:
- that redemption is given by using some outward means.
- that without redemption, a man is capable of using those means to be given
redemption.
- that redemption is given CONDITIONED upon a man (WITHOUT redemption yet)
using the outward means provided.
c. Some questions
Q. What is the spiritual state of a man who has not been given redemption by
Christ?
Q. Is such a man capable of using the means provided in order to be given
redemption?
Q. Does a man using the means provided to receive redemption involve some works
on his part?
1Pe 1:13
Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the
grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ.
What's the difference between these two questions?
Are they asking the same thing?
Q. By what outward means are we given redemption?
Q. By what outward means are we to enjoy the promised blessings of redemption?
Sing
<Christ gives redemption or God the Father gives redemption?...>
Good question.
The answer provided did specifically state that it is Christ who gives
redemption by the means stated.
Generally, the three Persons in the Triune God act in unison and harmony in the
redemption of the elect.
- God the Father purposed the redemption,
- God the Son accomplished the redemption purposed by God the Father, and
- God the Spirit applies (simple present tense) the redemption to each elect
(while dead in trespasses and sins); this work continues until the last elect
has been effectually called to redemption.
The three Persons of the Godhead are intimately involved in
giving/bestowing/applying the redemption to an elect in his native state of
sins and condemnation in Adam.
The 1689.10.1 CoF put this succinctly.
"Those whom God hath predestined unto life, He is pleased in His appointed
and accepted time, effectually to call, by His Word and Spirit,
out of that state of sin and death in which they are by nature, to grace
and salvation by Jesus Christ..."
This is when and how redemption IS GIVEN or APPLIED to an elect:
- when: at God's appointed and accepted time...
- when: when an elect is in his native state, i.e. in sin, death, and
condemnation in Adam
"... by His Word and Spirit" refer to the Second and Third Person's
of the Triune God."
Many RBs ignorantly take "His Word" as referring to the Scriptures or
the preached word. This is clearly without common sense, i.e. stupid. (You can
think of some obvious reasons).
This fable is also repudiated by what is said in 1689.10.3.
May the Lord give us understanding.
Amen.
Sing
<Christ gives redemption or God the Father gives redemption?>
Yes, the redemption purposed by God the Father for His elect was accomplished/secured
by God the Son through His sinless life of obedience (thus securing the
righteousness needed) and His atoning death (thus bearing away the wages of
sin) on the cross.
Asking "Christ gives redemption or God the father gives redemption?"
is a little bit like asking, "Mother gives life or the father gives
life?"
As I have tried to explain, both the mother and the father work in unity and
harmony in giving the life.
In the covenant of redemption, the three Persons of the Triune God covenanted
to work in perfect unity and harmony to execute everything needed for the
eternal salvation of the elect, to bring them to glory.
Yes, in the redemption of God's elect, only divine activities are involved,
excluding every outward means imaginable; otherwise salvation by grace is
denied and repudiated.
Outward means require human involvement to use those means; i.e. they require
human works.
Only those to whom the redemption has been freely bestowed by divine grace are
capable of utilizing those outward means to work out their own salvation... for
their temporal salvation.
Outward means belong to the sphere of temporal salvation.
ONLY THE LIVING, those whom God has freely bestowed redemption are capable of using the means provided.
