Things New and Old

Ancient truths revealed in the Scriptures are often forgotten, disbelieved or distorted, and therefore lost in the passage of time. Such ancient truths when rediscovered and relearned are 'new' additions to the treasury of ancient truths.

Christ showed many new things to the disciples, things prophesied by the prophets of old but hijacked and perverted by the elders and their traditions, but which Christ reclaimed and returned to His people.

Many things taught by the Apostles of Christ have been perverted or substituted over the centuries. Such fundamental doctrines like salvation by grace and justification have been hijacked and perverted and repudiated by sincere Christians. These doctrines need to be reclaimed and restored to God's people.

There are things both new and old here. "Consider what I say; and the Lord give thee understanding in all things"
2Ti 2:7.

Monday, January 24, 2022

"Eternal Salvation: Free Free or Fake Free?


https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/10215535140267106
January 24, 2020 

#FREE_FREE_or_FAKE_FREE

I received a private message:

"Please visit my page (Only One Truth) and read my 01/20-21 post... "Eternal Salvation: Free Free or Fake Free?")..."

I visited and left a few comments... but noticed that some were censored. So, I deleted the others too.

The post is captured in the picture below.

The author is wrestling with the glaring inconsistency that should be obvious to every sound-minded Christian with some common sense. The author, though trying to wrestle free from such inconsistency, is still stuck with it without knowing it. I tried to show him how to be consistent and to be "truly free" indeed and not just "fake free" in sound-byte only, but he baulked and censored my comments. 

He has started well; to be aware of the glaring inconsistency is a good start toward a perfectly consistent understanding of the issue. But he has baulked...

The simple answer lies in the distinction between eternal salvation and temporal salvation, and the five distinct facets of salvation. 

His idea of FREE FREE eternal salvation is still embroiled with man's role in obtaining it. In his words, "...  in order to obtain this “free gift” of [eternal] salvation…a person needs simply…to depend on, or to rely upon, Jesus Christ..." That is exactly what multitudes of preachers DO teach.

I pointed out that his idea of FREE FREE eternal salvation IS STILL conditioned upon the simple activities of a man depending on or relying upon Jesus Christ; it is still FAKE FREE! It's a classic case of the porky calling cattle beast. 😉

I said the simple truth is that only a man to whom God has ALREADY FREELY bestowed eternal salvation is capable of those simple activities he mentioned... he went ballistic! 

May the inconsistency he sees continue to haunt him until the right dividing the word of truth deliver him! Amen.  (I suffered the nightmare of seeing inconsistencies for several years before the Lord converted me to the truth about 18 years ago, 20 years after being a Reformed Baptist!) Multitudes are oblivious to the glaring inconsistency! Others call it "blessed inconsistency" of the gospel of Jesus Christ - what blasphemy!

 2Ti 2:15 "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

 

Sing F Lau
"An offer of salvation..."
=====
To whom offered? Obviously to those without the salvation that is offered. Those without salvation are dead in trespasses and sins. To offer salvation to such is at best superstitious, at better, it is stupid!

How is it possible to reconcile the idea of an offer of salvation, however sincere and persuasive, to those dead in trespasses and sins?

Sing F Lau
The is NO offer, much less a free offer in John 3:14-16!

It is a statement on the greatness of the love of God.

https://things-new-and-old.blogspot.com/2008/02/john-316-how-did-god-so-love.html
John 3:16 - How did God so love?

Sing F Lau
Thomas, I was waiting for others to show you your own inconsistency but none is forthcoming. Maybe they perceive the futility of attempting; since you fail to see your obvious inconsistency I have pointed out to you.

It is commendable that you see the glaring inconsistencies in others; it is sad that you fail to see a similar inconsistency in your own understanding.

Explaining further would be futile.

 

THE gospel versus one ANOTHER gospel

THE gospel versus one ANOTHER gospel

https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/4266257770159
January 24, 2013 

THE gospel versus one ANOTHER gospel
Do you see the DIFFERENCE? Very few do!
NKJ and KJ teach DIFFERENT gospels.
Do you know?

New King James reads thus
Gal 2:16 "knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified."

Rom 3:22 "even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all[h] who believe. For there is no difference..."

King James read thus:
Gal 2:16 "Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Rom 3:22 "even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:"

They are teaching VASTLY different things... in fact, different gospels!

And very many DON'T even have a clue why I say that!!

Do you have a clue? Then tell us!

(warning: comments must be directly related to the subject... otherwise they shall be deleted with no further waste of word or apology. And no KJ/nkj boxing here - we can do that in another place. Nurture the discipline of sticking to the subject. So, put away your machine guns. Bring out your sniper gun. Thanks)

More of the same perversion, leading to a new gospel

Ga 2:20
I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.

New gospel:
I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself for me.

### I live by the faith of the Son of God vs. I live by faith in the Son of God!

Ga 3:22
But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

New gospel
But the Scripture has confined all under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

### The promise by faith of Jesus Christ vs. that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ

Eph 3:12
In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him [Christ].

New gospel
In whom we have boldness and access with confidence through faith in Him.

### with confidence by the faith of him [Christ] vs. with confidence through faith in Him.

Php 3:9
And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith.

New gospel
And be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith.

### that which is through the faith of Christ vs. that which is through faith in Christ!

SEE THE VAST DIFFERENCE YET?
So, what is the difference? Why make mountains out of little molehills of preposition?

The WHOLE FOUNDATION of the gospel is subtly perverted and twisted and transferred from the faith OF - OF - OF Christ tooooooooooooooooooooo the man's faith IN - IN - IN Christ!

They have turned the truth into a fable.

Apostle Paul did warn - Eph 4:14 "That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive."

By the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, they have deceived so many of God's children.

A popular text abused and perverted by gospel regenerationists

This is a stunning sunset; it's not a sunrise. 

https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/183433341687438
January 24, 2011

A popular text abused and perverted by gospel regenerationists:
"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?" Romans 10

Sing F Lau
This happens because of their ignorance concerning the distinction between eternal salvation bestowed by God's free grace and temporal salvation wrought through the gospel ministry.

Eternal salvation bestowed by God's free grace enables a child of God to perceive and believe the gospel. And the perception and belief in the gospel save a believer, but save from what?

The way God saves a sinner, and the way believing saves a believers are entirely different. But the gospel regenerationists are ignorant of this basic distinction.

A biblical distinction is the essence of sound theology.

 · 11y

Sing F Lau
Pray tell,
- who are they who shall call upon the name of the Lord: those already regenerated, or those still dead in trespasses and sins?
- who are they who shall believe: those already regenerated, or those still dead in trespasses and sins?.........
- who are those who shall hear and discern the gospel: those already regenerated, or those still dead in trespasses and sins?

Who are they that shall call upon the name of the Lord? Those who are still dead in their trespasses and sins, or those whom God has effectually called out of their native state of sin and death to that of grace and salvation?

If the former, how are they able to call upon the name of the Lord? Please explain.

If the latter, how DOES the salvation that comes through their activity of believing differ from the salvation that God has bestowed upon them by freely by His grace and which enabled them to believe? Are they speaking of the ONE same salvation?

The same Apostle said, " For the preaching of the cross is to them that PERISH foolishness; but unto us which ARE SAVED it is the power of God."

The preaching of the gospel comes to two DISTINCT categories of people: those that are perishing, and those that ARE SAVED.

The gospel is brought to those that ARE SAVED - i.e ALREADY saved by God's free and sovereign grace with ETERNAL salvation, effectually called out of their native state of sins and death WITHOUT the gospel preaching. Them that ARE SAVED are there first before the gospel arrives... the gospel comes to them that ARE SAVED. Get the point?

Hearing and believing the gospel ALSO saves - but saves in an ENTIRELY different sense... the gospel saves them that ARE SAVED (by God) from ignorance and error and darkness and lies and superstition, and enlightens them and makes them wise (instructed and informed) unto their eternal salvation by God's free and sovereign grace.

The gospel truth instructs them to live godly, soberly and righteously, thus saving them from the temporal effects of sins in this life. The gospel truth arms and equips THEM THAT ARE SAVED to work out their own salvation with fear and trembling, saving them from this perverse and wicked generation.

Khai S. Ng
If Calvinists were consistent with their proclamation that "Gospel" + "Saving Faith" are the tools that bring about eternal salvation, I would like to see how that 'tool' is applied to infants, the mentally challenged and the thief of the cross!

Khai S. Ng
The thief was saved not because he heard the gospel - there's no record of it on the bible that the Lord Jesus preached the gospel to the dying thief! It was clear that he had to be regenerated prior to faith, that's why he responded IN faith!

Sing F Lau
"If Calvinists were consistent with their proclamation that "Gospel" + "Saving Faith" are the tools that bring about eternal salvation, I would like to see how that 'tool' is applied to infants, the mentally challenged and the thief of the cross!"
========
They have an ingenious solution: invent an 'exception clause'! This is serious!

But that is only adding LIES to LIES.

Christ said categorically,

" 8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit."

Note: "... SO IS EVERY ONE that is born of the Spirit."

There are no two ways about it. Either one or the other, direct immediate regeneration by the Spirit without gospel means, or mediated regeneration by the Spirit through the gospel means.

The simple fact that they have to invent an exception clause to cover their exposed backside is enough to betray their error.

DJ Keesee
Sing, What does Paul mean by asking this:
"Let me ask you only this: Did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith?" Thank you.

Joseph Theodore Nettles
There is a difference between the new birth and the manifest, special demonstration of the Spirit. Before the Holy Ghost came down in a special, empowering way in Acts 2, Jesus said that men were pressing into the kingdom. We know from his convo w/ Nicodemus that no man can see nor enter in without the new birth. How could they have been pressing into something they could neither see nor enter into? They had been born again, but had not yet received the special manifestation that was first shed upon the church in Acts 2. Also, how were Moses & Elijah there on the mount of transfiguration? They must need have been born again, yet they didn't have what we have today in the church. Therefore, when Paul made that statement to the Galatians, he was not referring to the regeneration, but to the special manifestation. That comes when we believe the gospel of grace. When we believe God and it is counted to us for righteousness. But, for a man to believe in Christ's gospel, he must have already been born again. Otherwise, he can't compare spiritual with spiritual. He would onlt be able to compare spiritual with carnal, and that, my brother, won't work. 1 John 5:1, 1 Cor 12:3, etal.

Sing F Lau
Dennis, you are DISGRACEFUL!
I commented on your wall, you deleted them. I don't do such thing. You are welcome to express your ideas here FREELY. I am always thankful to any one who would show me the truth and turn me from errors. I have learned much, which is why I am no longer a RB, even though I was one for 20+ years!

Ga 3:2 "This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?"

Let me ask you: Is your "did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith?" ONE AND THE SAME AS "were you regenerated by works of the law or by hearing with faith?"

If your answer is yes, then I will explain what Paul mean.

A biblical distinction is the essence of sound theology!

Folks like you are given to sound-byte-ism! <LOL>

REGENERATION enables a child of God to believe the gospel.

Believing the gospel of Jesus Christ enables a child of God to experience the blessedness of their salvation, the spiritual graces of faith, hope and love. That is only possible through the hearing of faith... THAT IS, to receive the Spirit.

 · 11y

DJ Keesee
Sing, Is Regeneration ''receiving the Spirit" or not?
Thanks.

DJ Keesee
Sing, It's not disgraceful to limit people's exposure to doctrinal error.

I do not let doctrinal error stand unchecked on my comments when I do not have the time to adequately reply.  Just FYI.

Sing F Lau
The best way to limit people's exposure to doctrinal error is to EXPOSE the error with cogent arguments, not the cowardly way of deleting comments that honestly interact with one's beliefs, and that expose the weakness and deficiency of one's views.

Sing F Lau
Is Regeneration ''receiving the Spirit" or not?
====
Simple answer: NO.
Regeneration: no condition.
Receiving the Spirit: conditioned upon hearing of faith.
[Apostle's question PRESUPPOSES that: "
Did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith?"

Next question, please.

DJ Keesee
Send me a PRIVATE message, and then I will discuss it with you. I will not allow you to spew falsehood where my friends can see it. Thanks.

DJ Keesee
It's not a condition for God to give you His Spirit.

Sing F Lau
Let me inquire then: is there the receiving of the Spirit WITHOUT the hearing of faith???

Regeneration brings a spiritually dead person to eternal life. That is not the giving and receiving of the Spirit.

There is no condition attached to regeneration... a man dead in trespasses and sins cannot meet any condition.

Ga 3:2 "This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?"

Apostle Paul explicitly states that the receiving of the Spirit is BY BY BY BY BY BY the hearing of faith. Without the hearing of faith... NO NO NO NO NO NO receiving of the Spirit.

The blind cannot see this plain and obvious truth.

You disagree with Paul.

Sing F Lau
"Send me a PRIVATE message, and then I will discuss it with you."
=====
Any subject worth discussing ought to be discussed in public. That way, errors get an opportunity to be exposed, and truth an opportunity to be affirmed and heard.

Sing F Lau
Ga 3:2 "This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?"

Brother Joseph Theodore has given an excellent explanation to the above.

Ga 4:6 And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.

And BECAUSE YE ARE SONS... that is, they are sons PRIOR to God's sending forth the Spirit of His Son into their hearts... leading to the joyous EXPERIENCE stated... IN THAT EXACT ORDER.

The ELECTS are:
- Sons by decree before time
- Sons by legal purchase at the cross
- Sons by personal regeneration at God's appointed time
- Sons through faith in Christ... experiential (not every elect will experience this practical aspect).
- Sons by the glorification

Joseph Theodore Nettles
If receiving the Spirit in this context means regeneration, and you don't receive it but by faith, then:
- Romans 3 says that the unborn again man fears not God, yet you are saying that that same man must have faith in one he does not fear in a reverential sense.
- Romans 3 also says that the unborn again man doesn't know the ways of peace, yet you advocate that that same man must transcend the carnal nature and exercise faith when he can't know any way to do so
- Romans 3 also says that the unborn again can't seek after God, yet that same man has to now incorporate to himself the substance of things hoped for and the evidence of things not seen.
- Romans 3 also says that the unborn again does no good and does no righteousness, yet that same man has to somehow do that which will inculcate him with the Spiritual birth. If doing such an action is not righteous and good, I don't know what is.
- Romans 8 says that the natural man's mind is not subject to the righteous rule of God, neither indeed can be. Yet, that same natural man has to perform that which you say he must, even when the Bible says that he won't and can't.
- Faith is listed in Galatians 5 as a fruit of the Spirit. You may say that all men have some root measure of faith, or you may advocate that God gives enough faith in each elect for him to perform acceptably. In either case, you're saying that the faith must be exercised prior to regeneration. Yet, if that man has within him ANY measure of a fruit of the Spirit, then we must say that the Spirit in some sense resides in that man. Well, consequently, if that's so then he is ALREADY born again and secure for heaven for Romans 8 says if the Spirit of Christ be in a man, the he is Christ's (present tense).

Many, many, more could be offered.

Joseph Theodore Nettles
Also, as far as a condition for receiving the Spirit, Jesus stated that the regeneration comes as the wind blows - where it so chooses to do so. By the time you can respond to it, it has already blown. In Isaiah 40 it is made clear that none can direct nor counsel him in this work. Yet, in Jesus' teaching on the coming of the Comforter he gave a prerequisite - if ye love me, keep my commandments. In Galatians 3, the clear inference is that they were no longer feeling that same manifestation due to incorporating works-religion into their "worship". In other words, they lost the Spirit through their misdeeds. The REGENERATION takes place in the womb in ignorance, on a road to Damascus in persecuting, or while suffering on a cross while cursing the Lord. The MANIFESTATION comes to believers whose heart has already been tendered by the Spiritual birth who now trust in Jesus as the alpha and omega in eternal salvation. The former is a one-time eternal work. The latter can be quenched, or grieved, or doubted away. thanks be to God that, even though it is the same Spirit who provides both, the twain are not the same!

Jerry Chapin
@ Bro. Joe, " In Galatians 3, the clear inference is that they were no longer feeling that same manifestation due to incorporating works-religion into their "worship". In other words, they lost the Spirit through their misdeeds."

I'm sure you're referring to a different spirit than the Holy Spirit in your reference. Paul, in writing to the churches in Galatia knew they needed much teaching in the difference ion the Law and Grace.

I believe these Galatians were children of God and as such, regenerated and not unregenerated. If this be the case, they could not 'lose' the Spirit, could they? Please explain...thanks.

Joseph Theodore Nettles
Not losing the new birth of soul & spirit which is caused by the Spirit. True, that Spirit will always abide in a regenerate. I was referring to the special manifestation of the Spirit, the Holy Ghost, aka the Comforter which was promised unto the NT church. If I confused, I apologize. It's likened to the experience of David in Psalm 51, Take not thy Holy Spirit from me (I hope I'm wording that right, no Bible here w/ me now). David's Spiritual life couldn't be lost, but his special communion w/ the Spirit that he had in his days was lost due to his gross errors. Sorry I was not concise enough.


Tuesday, January 18, 2022

Is your faith an effect or an instrumental cause of your justification?

A voltmeter is an instrument;
as an instrument, it performs a specific task,
i.e. to measure/manifest/indicate the voltage in the circuit. 
As an instrument, it DOES NOT generate the voltage in the circuit.
EVEN SO, faith is an instrument in justification; 
As an instrument, it makes manifest the justified state
(by God's free grace when dead in sin) of the believing one;
it is NOT the instrumental cause of his justification before God. 
Isn't this elementary?

https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/299595054545
January 18, 2010
 

Do you agree with this statement, 
"The reason why any are justified IS NOT because they have faith; but the reason why they have faith IS because they are justified" 
from a Circular Letter issued by the Ministers and messengers of the several Baptist churches, convened in Association, at Philadelphia, October 4, 1785. Click to read here: pruning-deformed-branches.blogspot.com/2008/01/justification-circular-letter-in-1785.html

Sing F Lau
How does the statement above compare with the popular idea "justified by faith alone"?

Erick Chanax
justified by faith alone...we do not mean that faith itself justifies us,for it is only an instrument with which we embrace Christ our righteousnous...what is meant is faith apart from works article 22 Belgic Confession of Faith...for your info, I didn't write the whole article down

Jason Sides
I would agree with it we are justified by faith alone however it is the kind of faith only Christ can give and never is alone but always works.

Sing F Lau
I paste here what I wrote under the previous update... a bit long, but read it slowly, and may our Lord bless you with understanding to know the truth!

====

The same Confession (1689 BCoF) declares that faith is a grace, among many other graces, found in a justified person, i.e. faith is a PRODUCT of our free grace justification.

Faith is a PRODUCT of our free grace justification. It debunks the whole idea of 'justification by faith alone' as a complete LIE and HERESY!

The product of justification CANNOT be the instrument of that justification in the same sense - it is as simple as that.

The same Confession declares these aspects of justification that the Reformed people have become completely ignorant of: 1689.11.4

"God did from all eternity decree to justify all the elect, (11) and Christ did in the fullness of time die for their sins, and rise again for their justification;(12) nevertheless, they are not justified PERSONALLY, until the Holy Spirit doth in time due actually apply Christ unto them.(13)"

Decretal justification of all elect in the decree of God.

Legal justification of all the elect by the blood of Christ at the cross.

Vital/Personal justification of an individual elect at God's effectual call out of the state of sin and death to that of grace and eternal salvation.

Legal justification is actually applied to an individual elect PERSONALLY. What was legal becomes personal. This makes the grace of faith (and all other graces) possible. This is spoken of in 1689.11.2

Experiential justification by FAITH ALONE: "Faith thus receiving and resting on Christ and His righteousness, is the alone instrument of justification;(6) yet it is not alone in the person justified, but ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but worketh by love. (7)"

But all the reformed people make this aspect of justification the SUM-TOTAL teaching of the Bible on justification. I wrote an article: "One Fingered Hand is a Monstrous Deformity." Read it here https://things-new-and-old.blogspot.com/2009/08/one-fingered-hand-is-monstrous.html

Note carefully please concerning 11.2 above:

First: faith is the alone INSTRUMENT of justification. We all know that the FUNCTION of an instrument is to manifest/evidence the presence of something. The function of an instrument is not to secure or produce something. An instrument MANIFESTS something that is there. And God in His infinite wisdom has appointed faith in Jesus Christ as the sole instrument to manifest the justified state by the free grace of God.

Why? I wrote this in my book "An instrument is a device to make manifest or to demonstrate or to evidence the presence of something for which the instrument was designed. It has pleased God in His own infinite wisdom to appoint ‘faith in Christ’ as the sole instrument to bring to light His gracious work of justification at effectual calling since justification is grounded solely upon Christ and His finished work. The just shall live by faith."

Second: saving grace is a grace found in the person justified, along with many other graces. Justification is the CAUSE, saving graces, including faith, are FRUIT/EFFECTS.

THEREFORE the statement "the just shall live by faith" debunks and discredit the MOST popular lie of your 'justification (before God) by faith alone'.

Therefore this statement,
"The reason why any are justified
IS NOT because they have faith;
but the reason why they have faith
IS because they are justified"
by the PBA is perfectly corrects, and debunks the popular idea that "justification is by faith alone" is a very popular LIE and FALSEHOOD.

The truth should be, "Justification is experienced by faith alone." But this simple biblical truth is rejected by ALL the reformed people, and condemned as heresy!

Thank you, if you have read down to this point. May our Lord grant you understanding.

Erick Chanax
Sing, the thing about your posts is that it makes me study the scriptures, keep posting brother, for I will keep on studying. Though I must admit I am not as educated in theology as you, but nevertheless I keep on studying, thanks my brother.

Sing F Lau
Jason & Erick... read through what I have written above, and you would understand more completely what justification by faith is all about.

Justification is by God's free grace... and this justification by God's free grace is EXPERIENCED by faith alone, and EVIDENCED by faith as well as works.

Jason Sides
Sing I still contend we are justified by grace through faith; justification by faith alone is not a lie but maybe needs clarification. He is the one who gives the faith to believe not by our trying to conjure up the faith to believe but rather him giving it to us, not of any merit on our own.

Erick Chanax
It makes sense, but as a Berean, I must study this matter, to fully grasp it. I have to search the scriptures and some commentaries

Sing F Lau
Goading friends to study Scriptures for themselves is all I desire. But many don't study the Scriptures anymore. They quote this man and that man, and they repeat this and that, without really understanding what they regurgitate.

Sing F Lau
jason@ "I still contend we are justified by grace through faith justification by faith alone is not a lie but maybe needs clarification he is the one who gives the faith..."

Justification unto life is the opposite of condemnation unto death. Justification unto life MUST be PRIOR to the ability to believe. Believing is AN EFFECT of justification; being an effect of justification, the only role it plays is acting as an instrument to manifest that justification that has taken place!

Justification by faith alone is a big lie and error!

Justification by free grace EXPERIENCED by faith alone is a biblical truth. This is the uniform declaration of the many old school 'reformed' Confession of faith... e.g. 1689 CoF.

Erick Chanax
mm, justified by faith, it basically is being justified without works of righteousness, maybe the wording is what throws some off, but like I said I will search the scriptures

Jason Sides
Sing hopefully we both agree on Eph 2:8-9

Erick Chanax
I will also look at the 1689 CoF

Jason Sides
I am justified by the work of Christ and His grace in causing me to believe on him for salvation. [sing: Then are you still justified by faith alone?]

Sing F Lau
Jason, please read this, and see whether we agree on Eph 2:8-9.
Thanks.

https://things-new-and-old.blogspot.com/2008/01/saved-by-grace-through-faith-whose.html

May our Lord grant you understanding beyond mere words repeated endlessly. Time to move beyond that.

Sing F Lau
Erick, our justification before God is NEITHER by faith nor by works... but by the righteousness of Jesus Christ alone.

Experiential justification is by faith ALONE, without works. No amount of works will enable us to experience the blessedness of our justified state. Faith in Christ is the ALONE instrument appointed for that.

Evidential justification is by BOTH faith and works.

Jason Sides
Sing the problem is justification is by a work just not our work but as you stated righteousness of Jesus Christ. I do for the most part agree with your link. Repent and believe the Gospel was penned by Christ and it is he who causes the person to do both. We have no capacity to do either.

Jason Sides
I do agree with John Gill's exposition of Eph 2:8-9

Sing F Lau
Jason @ "I am justified by the work of Christ and his grace in causing me to believe on him for salvation."

That's more like the truth. So where does your faith come in your justification by God now? Does it still figure in your justification by God's grace alone - since it is INSISTED that it is SOLELY and WHOLLY based on the finished work of Christ - before God?

What kind of salvation did (simple past tense) the justification by free grace bring to you?

What kind of salvation does (simple present tense) your believing in Christ bring to you?
Are they the same?

Sing F Lau
Jason@ "I do agree with John Gill's exposition of eph 2:8-9"

What is the gist of what Gill say?

Wednesday, January 12, 2022

Is it 'perseverance' or is it 'preservation'?


https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/2521490192060
January 12, 2012 

Is it 'perseverance' or is it 'preservation'?

Many debates about the appropriateness of the word 'persevere' and 'preserve.'

What's the difference? What are some implications? Do you care?

I have a thought.

God, by His own grace and power, calls an elect out of his native state of sin and death into that state of grace and salvation.

And as the result, each child of God remains in that state of grace and salvation. Nothing can oust a child of God out of that state of grace and salvation, except the same power that brought about that translation. But the gifts and calling of God are without repentance, Rom 11:29.

[Please note that 'remaining in that state of grace and salvation' is VASTLY different from 'continuing in a life of faith and holiness.' The former is the truth, the latter is a lie of the devil and a fable of man].

So, I wonder what is the use or purpose of needing the word 'to preserve' in that state of grace and salvation?

The word 'to preserve' implies the existence of a persistent effort acting to the contrary - to dislodge God's children from that state of grace and salvation? Is that even possible - to bring God's children back to the state of sin and death?

Do we read of any such ideas, i.e. the Satan and His devils trying to dislodge God's children from their state of grace and salvation? Is Satan even so stupid to attempt the impossible?

I thought the word 'persevere' is a simple statement of the completeness and absolute certainty of God's work to transferring the elect from the state of sin and death to that of grace and salvation... therefore they immutably remain in that state of grace because of God's free and sovereign act!

Is there even further need for God to preserve them in that state of grace. The further need to preserve implies the uncertainty of the work already done!

And that is blasphemous!
=======

14 Comments

Sing F Lau
God, by His grace and power, does the work of translating an elect out of his NATIVE state of sin and death into THAT of grace and salvation. Amen and amen, blessed gospel truth.

Is that work of effectual calling complete and immutable?

If it is, then the elect shall remain/persevere in that state of grace and salvation.

If it is not, then further work of preserving is needed indeed. But if it is not, what does that say about your God?

Sing F Lau
Romans 8: 37 Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. 38 For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come,
39 Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.

What is spoken of in these verses:
- the children of God continuing/persevering in that STATE/STANDING of grace and salvation in Jesus Christ (as a result of what God has done). OR
- the children of God continuing/persevering in a life of faith and holiness to the end?

Sing F Lau
I wholly agree that God preserves us in life - which has to do with our well-being as His children.

Paul said in 1 Thess 5:23-24, "I pray God your whole body, soul, and spirit be preserved blameless unto the coming of the Lord Jesus Christ. Faithful is he that called you, who will also do it"

As far as our BEING as God's children, God's work is complete and immutable, and needs no preservation.

Often the focus of preservation is wrongly linked with the BEING issue, instead of the WELL-BEING issue.

PJ Walters
Many Reformers use "persevere" to mean "continuing in a life of faith and holiness." but that is a newer usage of it. The original - the Scriptural - is that of remaining in the state of grace and salvation. I wish more people would make the distinction.

Sing F Lau
"Those who persevere to the end will be saved'
- question: will be saved from what?

For those who do persevere but fail to persevere to the end, what will happen to them? Do they go to eternal condemnation?

Did Lot persevere to the end? What about Solomon? Are they saved - if they are, in what sense? Did they perish - if they did, perish in what sense?

Bill Taylor
And that, dear brother, is the truth. How much time do you think God's people waste arguing about one term over another - when neither term is needed?

Sing F Lau
Is that even possible - to bring God's children back to the state of sin and death?

The effectual call is IR-reversible! The justification, regeneration and adoption that took place at the effectual call out of the native state of sin and death to that of grace and salvation are IRREVERSIBLE.

Once the righteousness of Christ is applied, it remains applied forever. None can undo that.

Once the Holy Spirit regenerates the justified, an child of God possesses eternal life... none can take that away.

Once adopted into the family of God, a child of God become a permanent member of God's family, and forever.

Sing F Lau
Sometimes little children sincerely offer their assistance... thinking that without it their powerful father may falter and fail. A popular idea like... God must predestinate all things if He is to remain in control of all things! Such idea actually diminish the power and sovereignty of God! Such idea are reflective of weak men... they can't control things unless they are all pre-programmed!

Cheri Thomas
Perseverance has to do with discipleship. Preservation has to do with grace. Confusing the two has to do with depravity.

Sing F Lau
Sistah, take this. Buckle the safety harness!

You and Sistah Julie bought me a BIG FAT dictionary by Noah Webster.
It says: 
Perseverance:
2. In theology: continuance in the STATE of grace to a state of glory; sometimes called final perseverance!

I am an OLD line Baptist, holding to old fashion OLB perseverance!

You are holding to new progressive ideas! <LOL>

Thanks for good ole Noah Webster's Dictionary!

Friday, January 7, 2022

Some questions on the Effectual Call and the Gospel Call

 


https://www.facebook.com/notes/10217727949245960/
Jan 2005

Some questions on the Effectual Call and the Gospel Call

So, start asking questions... challenge the popular notions and shibboleths - and have fun along the way! Don't tolerate the imbecile notion that there are 'blessed inconsistencies' in the Scriptures!


Some study questions on:

- The Effectual Call out of the state of sin and death to that of grace and salvation, and
- The Gospel Call out of darkness into the knowledge of the gospel of their salvation:  


A. THE EFFECTUAL CALL

1. Concerning 1689.10.1 - Divine calling out of the STATE sin and death to that STATE of grace and salvation
- Who is the Author of the effectual call?
- Is Christ involved in the effectual call? Why?
- Who are the objects of the effectual call?
- What is the effectual call?- What does God do at effectual calling?
- What is the spiritual condition of the mind before/after effectual call?
- What is the spiritual condition of the heart before/after effectual call?
- What is the spiritual condition of the will before/after effectual call?
- In the effectual calling, what is the state of the sinner who is drawn to Christ and united with Him?
- What does it mean to be drawn and united to Christ?

 2. Concerning 1689.10.2 – the effectual call enables a saved man to answer to the gospel call to believe the truth of his salvation by God's free grace
- How is the effectual call executed?
- Is the execution of the effectual call dependent or conditioned upon God's free and special grace alone?
- Is the execution of the effectual call dependent or conditioned upon anything in the person called?
- Is the execution of the effectual call dependent upon any power or agency of the person called?
- Why is the person entirely passive in the effectual call?
- In what call is a man dead in sins and trespasses made alive, in the effectual call or gospel call?
- In what call is the grace offered and conveyed, in the effectual call or gospel call?
- Is a man dead in sins and trespasses able to embrace the grace offered and conveyed?
- What call enables a man dead in sins and trespasses to embrace the grace offered and conveyed?
- In what call are the grace offered and conveyed embraced by a man, in the effectual or gospel call?
- What does quickening and renewing by the Spirit enable a man to answer, effectual or the gospel call?
- Why is the power that enables the embrace of the grace offered and conveyed no less powerful than that which raised up Christ from the dead?
- Is the effectual call by God in any way dependent or conditioned upon the gospel call by man?
- How are the effectual call and the gospel call related? What about Abraham? What about Cornelius?

 3. Concerning 1689.10.3 – The effectually called who do not have the gospel call
- Are the statements in 1689.10.1 concerning 'those whom God has predestinated to life' true of the elect mentioned in this 3rd paragraph?
- Are the elect mentioned in para. 3 included in the elect predestinated unto life in paragraph 1?
- Is ‘by His Word and Spirit’ in para 1 and ‘by Christ through the Spirit’ in para 3 referring to the same persons?
- Are the elect in para. 3 effectually called to life and salvation in a different manner than those mentioned in para. 1?
- What are the differences between the elect mentioned in para 2 and those mention in para 3?
- What does the 'ministry of the word' mean? (Acts 6:4)
- To whom is the ministry of the word intended: those who have the mental capacity to hear or those who are without?
- What is the relationship between 'grace offered and conveyed by it' in para 2 and the 'outwardly call by the ministry of the word' in para 3? What is the 'it' by which grace is offered and conveyed?
- What is the difference between the 'elect infants dying in infancy' and 'all elect persons who are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the word'?
- What is the similarity [indicated by 'so also'] between the 'elect infants dying in infancy' and 'all elect persons who are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the word'?
- Why are the elect infant dying in infancy incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the word? No mental capability, or the gospel call never reached them?
- Why are all other elect person in paragraph 3 incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the word? No mental capability, or the gospel call never reached them?
- What are two chief reasons that the elect mentioned in para 3 are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the word?
- Are there God's elect who, for are various reasons, DO NOT receive the gospel call?
- Will these be justified by God? How?
- Will these be justified by their faith? How?
- Will these be found in heaven? Why?

 

B. THE GOSPEL CALL

4. Concerning 1689.14.1 – The ministry of the word/gospel call and faith
- Which particular person of the Godhead is the author of the gospel call to faith?
- In the effectual call, God and His Word and Spirit call to life and salvation one who is in the state of sin and death. In the gospel call, the Spirit of Christ works faith in the hearts of those already regenerated. Are the two acts of grace the same? How are they related?
 Who are those who are enabled to believe?
- How is 'enabled to answer the call and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed by it' in 1689.1.2 related to 'is enabled to believe' in 1689.14.1?
- Who is able to respond to the gospel call, those already effectually called to life or those still in the state of sin and death?
- Who is able to exercise faith in response to the gospel call, those already effectually called to life or those still in the state of sin and death?
- What role does an elect play in the gospel call?
- What role does an elect play in the effectual call?
- What is the divine work in the gospel call to faith?
- What is the divine work in the effectual call to life and salvation?
- How is an elect ORDINARILY brought to faith?
- How is an elect ALWAYS WITHOUT EXCEPTION brought to life and salvation?
- What does 'ordinarily brought into being by the Word' imply?
- Is bringing a spiritually dead person to life in the effectual call, and calling an effectually called person to believe the truth of his salvation the same thing?

5. 1689.20.3-4 - The function of the gospel preaching and faith
- "... And therefore in all ages, the preaching of the Gospel has been granted unto persons and nations, as to the extent or straitening [limitation] of it, in great variety, according to the counsel of the will of God."
- "Although the gospel be the only outward means of revealing Christ and saving grace, and is, as such, abundantly sufficient thereunto; yet that men who are dead in trespasses may be born again, quickened or regenerated, there is moreover necessary an effectual insuperable work of the Holy Spirit upon the whole soul, for the producing in them a new spiritual life; without which no other means will effect their conversion unto God."

- What does “in all preaching of the Gospel has been granted unto persons and nations… as to the extent or limitation of it…according to the counsel of the will of God." tells us about the sovereignty of God?
- What is the divinely ordained purpose of the preaching of the gospel?
- What does 'the preaching of the gospel is the only outward means of revealing Christ and saving grace' mean?
- Why is the preaching of the gospel is the only outward means of revealing Christ and saving grace?
- How does 'the preaching of the gospel reveal Christ and saving grace'?
- What is absolutely necessary for the preaching of the gospel to reveal Christ and saving grace?
- Can the preaching of the gospel reveal Christ and saving grace when there is no PRIOR work of effectual calling to life?
- Can the preaching of the gospel reveal Christ and saving grace that is not already present?
- In whom alone will the preaching of the gospel reveal Christ and saving grace?
- How is the preaching of the gospel related to the conversion of sinners unto God?
- Who can be converted to God by the preaching of the gospel?

- WHY IS THE PREACHING OF THE GOSPEL MOST NECESSARY?

 If you wish to try to answer the questions to find out how much you have misunderstood the subject, send them to me, and I will help you find out. Save your time if you want to debate! Let's have some fun together!

Wednesday, January 5, 2022

The law written in their hearts...

Chicken law, that is, she lays an egg almost every day! <LOL>

https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/1182086067794
January 4, 2011

Romans 2
 13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)

Dear brethren,
Please help me with this passage. Give me some answers...

Romans 2
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)

In 2:13, Apostle Paul lays down a principle, i.e. "For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified."

Q. What is the justification spoken of? Legal, vital, or practical? 
Q. How does doing the law justify?
Q. Is "For not the hearers of the law are just before God" THE SAME AS SAYING "For the hearers of the law are NOT just before God."

In 2:14 Apostle Paul mentions the Gentiles...
Q. Is he speaking of ALL Gentiles generally, or is he speaking of those Gentiles that do demonstrate the principle stated in verse 13?
Q. Of the Gentiles spoken, why do they do by nature the things contained in the law, even though they do not have the law?

Q. What does it mean that these Gentiles "do by nature the things contained in the law"?
- Is this a reference to something natural, or something spiritual?
- If natural, then shouldn't it be true of ALL the Gentiles as well as ALL the Jews , i.e. the whole human race?

Q. If Apostle Paul is speaking of ALL Gentiles generally, then aren't those things spoken by necessity true of every Jew too?

Q. By nature, are the Gentiles and Jews any different? Aren't all of both conceived in sin and born in sin?

In 2:15 Apostle Paul speaks of the "work of the law written in their hearts (the Gentiles who do by nature the things contained in the law)."
Q. Is this work of the law written in their hearts a reference to something natural or something spiritual?
Q. 2:15 speaks of these Gentiles' thoughts "excusing one another." To whom/what does "one another" refer to?

Q. 2:1 says 'Therefore thou art inexcusable, O man' - addressing man generally. But 2:15 speaks of these Gentiles' thoughts "excusing one another." How are the two related?

You may have your own questions. Raise them. We will study together.

=======

Sing F Lau

Probably 'condemning or else approving' one another.
I'm hitting the haystack.

Sing F Lau
Not so fast, dude!
Need to determine first what/who 'one another' refer to!
What do you say?

Sing F Lau
Every bullet must hit a target... so aim well. ZZZZZZZZZZ!

Constanzia Dyess
In 2:13, Apostle Paul lays down a principle, i.e. "For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified."

Q. What is the justification spoken of?
A. I think its speaking of possibly both time salvation and eternal... Time salvation because it says 'doers of the law' my interpretation of which means works. However, the willingness and 'doing' of the law indicate actions of the Spirit... without God, man can do nothing.

Q. How does doing the law justify?
A. Earthly... While we are here on earth, we are rewarded for obedience 🙂

Q. Is "For not the hearers of the law are just before God" THE SAME AS SAYING "For the hearers of the law are NOT just before God."
A. Not by my understanding. I think it means that hearing does not make you justified either timely or eternally. Some hear without really hearing. Sharing to those who hear is to share the good news.

In 2:14 Apostle Paul mentions the Gentiles...
Q. Is he speaking of ALL Gentiles generally, or is he speaking of those Gentiles that do demonstrate the principle stated in verse 13?
A. Sounds to me like he is talking about the Gentiles, which have not the law... currently, does not mean they never will if it is speaking of time salvation 🙂 Could also mean they have just dont know the law for sure but it is written in their hearts

Q. Of the Gentiles spoken, why do they do by nature the things contained in the law, even though they do not have the law?
A. See previous answer

Q. What does it mean that these Gentiles "do by nature the things contained in the law"? Is this a reference to something natural, or something spiritual?
A. IMO spiritual= already written in their hearts. God lets his people know what he will by means of the spirit or servant. With man it is impossible but With God all things are possible.

In 2:15 Apostle Paul speaks of the "work of the law written in their hearts (the Gentiles who do by nature the things contained in the law)."

Q. Is this work of the law written in their hearts a reference to something natural or something spiritual?
A. Holy Spiritual lol 😉

Q. 2:15 speaks of these Gentiles' thoughts "excusing one another." To whom/what do "one another" refer to?
A. could be their thoughts.. i.e. warring in the members

Q. 2:1 says 'Therefore thou art inexcusable, O man' - addressing man generally. But 2:15 speaks of these Gentiles' thoughts "excusing one another." How are the two related.
A. Physical and mental? good questions lol

Van Quick
Bro. Sing, I believe our justification is Christ, and Christ was and is certainly a doer of the law, as he kept the law to a jot and a tittle. He kept the law for his people. A pharisee or someone else who is self-justified can only be a hearer of the law. man cannot keep the law on his own merit. Someone like this may think he is a doer, but there is no justification without Christ. That is what I get from this passage.

Sing F Lau
Thank Van.
Justification through Christ's keeping the law (legal or forensic justification) is not raised until chapter 3.

The justification spoken of here has to relate to the doing of the law. So, it is more likely evidential in nature. The hearers of the law do not show their justified state, whereas the doers of the law do.

Keep talking. I am in study mode... trying to understand the passage.

Sing F Lau
Picture of chicken - an expression of gratitude to a doer of the law... chicken law, that is, she lays an egg almost every day! <LOL>

Van Quick
Hi Brother Sing. I must go to work, so I must be brief. I liked your response to me, and I must study this too. Studying the book of James might help in understanding this passage in Romans.

Sing F Lau
James deals with works and faith in the context of EVIDENTIAL justification.

Apostle Paul in Romans deal with several other aspects of justification:
- LEGAL justification on the cross by the blood of Jesus Christ.
- VITAL justification by the free grace of God when LEGAL justification is applied and made vital and personal.

Sing F Lau
Q What is the law?

Most likely 'moral law'.