The Jailer asked, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?

 

The Jailer asked, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?

And they said, "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house." Acts 16:30-31.

Multitudes of teachers insist that the Jailer wanted to know what he must do to be saved from the lake of fire, and that Apostle Paul told him to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ in order for him and his household to be saved from it.

Do you believe the same too?

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Sing
Supposing you do, ARE you NOT making Apostle Paul teach, and do you not also believe this NONSENSE:
- eternal salvation from hell by proxy - jailer's believing shall save NOT ONLY him BUT ALSO his household from hell;
- eternal salvation from the lake of fire is through some activities of men.

Go figure, FB friends! Tell me if the obvious conclusions are faulty! Ideas have implications, just remember that.

Just what was uppermost in the Jailer's mind when he asked, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" What did he want to be saved from... he and his household?

And who is his household? And how shall his household be saved through his believing?

Please give me some sensible answers. Thanks

Michael Green
He likely wanted to save his head at that moment!

Sing
Acts 16:27 "And the keeper of the prison awaking out of his sleep, and seeing the prison doors open, he drew out his sword, and would have killed himself, supposing that the prisoners had been fled."

What explains his action?

Roman law demands that if a prisoner escapes, the jailer responsible for guarding that life shall forfeit his life for the life that escapes!

Yes, no one escaped... but "he drew out his sword, and would have killed himself, supposing that the prisoners had fled."

He was overwhelmed by the fact that none of the prisoners had escaped YET... they still could... the doors were all still open. Should anyone decide to escape, the jailer would lose his head! "What must I do to be saved" so that you would all remain and escape not... ....

Jailer's household - his wife and children? Or his fellow prison officers under his jurisdiction?

Lydia's household - her husband and children? Or her servants under her jurisdiction?

Chase Harrison
Just to share my thoughts:

"And the keeper of the prison awaking out of his sleep, and seeing the prison doors open, he drew out his sword, and would have killed himself, supposing that the prisoners had been fled." - Acts 16:27

I have always viewed this whole situation as the Jailer was certainly not inquiring about eternal salvation. That's not what was on his mind at that very moment! What was on his mind? The above verse gives us strong indication of the context.

It was a serious offense for a Roman soldier or guard to fall asleep at their post and not keep watch over their prisoners, especially if any prisoners escaped. The penalty of that was death. So, it appears, that out of fear of the penalty of death under Roman law (because he assumed the prisoners would flee and supposed that they did flee), the Jailer goes to enact the penalty of death upon himself.

But Paul cries out with a loud voice and tells the Jailer to do no harm unto himself because "we are all here", meaning they hadn't actually fled as the Jailer supposed. So, when the Jailer then asks his question about what must he do to be saved?, to me, he is obviously still worried about the penalty of death that the Roman government would execute upon him for falling asleep at his nightly watch. He figures that once the "magistrates" find out what has happened that they will surely have him justly put to death by Roman law.

So while the Jailer's question is most likely with the context of being saved from the penalty of death, what Paul tells him is not only going to save him from that penalty of death but in a much more abundant way. Through this whole experience, the Jailer and his house are about to be saved to the gospel truth of Jesus Christ and blessed to come into the church of the Lord Jesus Christ in water baptism. What a blessing!

I liken the salvation here contextually to Acts 2:37-41, where many were pricked in the heart after they heard the gospel preached and wanted to know what should they do?? And after Peter answered what they should do, he followed up with an interesting statement, "Save yourselves from this untoward generation". Right after that statement we read "then they that gladly received his word were baptized". Here we have a salvation tied to hearing the gospel, believing the gospel, then being obedient to the gospel and being added to the Lord's church by water baptism. This is obviously purely discipleship and not sonship. These people were saved from an untoward generation to the gospel church and truth of Jesus Christ, and not saved from hell to Heaven.

I think the same thing applies to the situation with the Jailer. He was not only saved from a physical death, but he and his house were blessed to receive the truth of Jesus Christ and come into the gospel church that day!

"And he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, straightway. And when he had brought them into his house, he set meat before them, and rejoiced, believing in God with all his house." - Acts 16:33,34

- (all this referring to the Jailer and his house)

Chase Harrison
Furthermore, if the Jailer was worried or concerned about his eternal destination and being saved eternally..... then why would he kill himself?? That seems absurd to me!

If I was worried about my eternal destiny (and by the grace of God I'm not), but IF I was, then I would not kill myself while in that state! I would do everything I could (at least in my mind) to be sure of my eternal destiny before I died.

Obviously, the Jailer was greatly and immediately concerned with the imminent penalty of death that he knew would be enacted upon him for allowing prisoners to escape on his watch.

Mark Thomas
Brother Keith, the prisoners were no longer contained and still could have overpowered one man and left the prison. Thus the fact that they were all still there was not sufficient to set aside all of his fear.

Sing
Was Apostle Paul conscious that if any of the prisoners escaped, the Jailor and his officers will pay with their lives???

Charles Page
hell, no, hades yes! Paul was leading the jailer and his household from the torture of hades and over the chasm into paradise. They certaintly were not led from the lake of eternal destruction they were regenerate!!!

Perseverance of the Saints: Old Truth vs New Fable

Perseverance in the state of grace
with
Perseverance in a life of faith and holiness.

 

The Old School Baptists summarized their understanding of the doctrine OF THE PERSEVERANCE OF THE  SAINTS in these words. The New School Baptists have perverted this biblical teaching.

1689.17. Paragraph 1.
"Those whom God has accepted in the beloved, effectually called and sanctified by his Spirit, and given the precious faith of his elect unto, can neither totally nor finally fall from the state of grace, but shall certainly persevere therein to the end, and be eternally saved, seeing the gifts and callings of God are without repentance, from which source he still begets and nourishes in them faith, repentance, love, joy, hope, and all the graces of the Spirit unto immortality; and though many storms and floods arise and beat against them, yet they shall never be able to take them off that foundation and rock which by faith they are fastened upon; notwithstanding, through unbelief and the temptations of Satan, the sensible sight of the light and love of God may for a time be clouded and obscured from them, yet he is still the same, and they shall be sure to be kept by the power of God unto salvation, where they shall enjoy their purchased possession, they being engraved upon the palm of his hands, and their names having been written in the book of life from all eternity."

Paragraphs 2 and 3 are a further elaboration of Paragraph 1.

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Notes

1. Those whom God has accepted in the Beloved are effectually called out of their native state of sin and death to that state of grace and salvation in Jesus Christ, 1689.10.1.

- The effect of this free and sovereign activity of God is immutable; those called into the state of grace in the Beloved "shall certainly persevere THEREIN [in the state of grace and salvation in Christ Jesus) to the end, and be eternally saved."

- That is the essence of the doctrine of the perseverance of the saints; they immutably REMAIN in the state of grace and salvation into which they have been called. 

The New School Baptists - RBs and other shades of Sovereign and Grace Baptists - have perverted this biblical teaching by substituting perseverance in the state of grace with perseverance in a life of faith and holiness.

The doctrine that declares the immutable effect of God's sovereign act of effectual calling HAS BEEN PERVERTED into a doctrine that declares the indispensable effort of man in a life of faith and holiness.

Perseverance in the state of grace is the immutable effect of God's free and gracious act in calling His elect into that state; it does not involve or depend upon any activities of those effectually called.

The fable of a life of faith and holiness is completely repudiated in the summary above.

==========

The text of 
Paragraph 2
This perseverance of the saints depends not upon their own free will, but upon the immutability of the decree of election,4 flowing from the free and unchangeable love of God the Father, upon the efficacy of the merit and intercession of Jesus Christ and union with him,5 the oath of God,6 the abiding of his Spirit, and the seed of God within them,7 and the nature of the covenant of grace;8 from all which ariseth also the certainty and infallibility thereof.

Paragraph 3.
And though they may, through the temptation of Satan and of the world, the prevalency of corruption remaining in them, and the neglect of means of their preservation, fall into grievous sins, and for a time continue therein,9 whereby they incur God's displeasure and grieve his Holy Spirit,10 come to have their graces and comforts impaired,11 have their hearts hardened, and their consciences wounded,12 hurt and scandalize others, and bring temporal judgments upon themselves,13 yet shall they renew their repentance and be preserved through faith in Christ Jesus to the end.14

Dellis Worsham Sr.
Amen, I always enjoy your lessons.

Redemption through outward means?

https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/pfbid02qvyzA3s3zjj4HezKcon3ZLcdA3oRn2ioJh26zTXAASyusjEdUkXPmUhLMmeyeRNwl

Sir, what do you think of this QnA?
Q. By what outward means are we given redemption?
A. Christ gives redemption by His word, the sacraments & prayer.

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The above is a catechism question and answer by a well-known Reformed minister.

What do you think of the question and answer?

If you have understood the gospel of Christ, the errors and confusion in both the question and answer will glare* at you; otherwise, they are smooth words.

*glare - stare angrily or fiercely.

Sing F Lau
Redemption is paid with His righteous life and blood on the cross. Not sacraments, not prayers.
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Yes, the redemption purposed by God the Father for His elect was accomplished/secured by God the Son through His sinless life of obedience (thus securing the righteousness needed) and His atoning death (thus bearing away the wages of sin) on the cross.

The question, "Christ gives redemption or God the Father gives redemption?" is a little bit like asking, "Mother gives life or the father gives life?"

As I have tried to explain, both the mother and the father work in unity and harmony to give life.

In the covenant of redemption, the three Persons of the Triune God covenanted to work in perfect unity and harmony to execute everything needed for the eternal salvation of the elect, to bring them to glory.

Yes, in the redemption of God's elect, only divine activities are involved, excluding every outward means imaginable; otherwise, salvation by grace is denied and repudiated.

Outward means require human involvement to use those means; i.e. they require human work.

Only those to whom the redemption has been freely bestowed by divine grace are capable of utilising those outward means to work out their own salvation... for their temporal salvation.

Outward means belong to the sphere of temporal salvation.

Sing
Isa 1:18a "Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD..."

Let's consider the question first.
Q. By what outward means are we given redemption?

a. Some word meanings:
- "redemption" - deliverance, esp. from the just penalty of sin; finally from the eternal lake of fire. This redemption is by Christ's life and death alone: Heb 9:12 "Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us."

- "means" - something used to attain/achieve a result; in this case, the result is to be given redemption.

b. The question assumes/presupposes a few things:
- that redemption is given by some outward means.
- that a man without redemption is capable of using those means to be given redemption.
- that redemption is given CONDITIONED upon a man (WITHOUT redemption yet) using the outward means provided.

c. Some questions
Q. What is the spiritual state of a man who has not been given redemption by Christ?
Q. Is such a man capable of using the means provided in order to be given redemption?
Q. Supposing such a man is capable, does his using the means provided to receive the redemption constitute some works on his part?

1Pe 1:13
Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Sing
One asked:
Christ gives redemption, or God the Father gives redemption?
Redemption is paid with His righteous life and blood on the cross.
Not sacraments, not prayers.
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Good question.
The answer provided specifically stated that it is Christ who gives redemption through the means stated.

Generally, the three Persons in the Triune God act in unison and harmony in the redemption of the elect.
- God the Father purposed the redemption,
- God the Son accomplished the redemption purposed by God the Father, and
- God the Spirit applies (simple present tense) the redemption to each elect (while dead in trespasses and sins); this work continues until the last elect has been effectually called to redemption.

The three Persons of the Godhead are intimately involved in giving/bestowing/applying the redemption to an elect in his native state of sins and condemnation in Adam.

The 1689.10.1 CoF put this succinctly.

"Those whom God hath predestined unto life, He is pleased in His appointed and accepted time, effectually to call, by His Word and Spirit, out of that state of sin and death in which they are by nature, to grace and salvation by Jesus Christ..."

This is when and how redemption IS GIVEN or APPLIED to an elect:
- at God's appointed and accepted time...
- an elect is in his native state, i.e. in sin, death, and condemnation in Adam

"... by His Word and Spirit" refer to the Second and Third Person's of the Triune God."

Many RBs ignorantly take "His Word" as referring to the Scriptures or the preached word. This is clearly without common sense, i.e. stupid. (You can think of some obvious reasons). This fable is also repudiated by what is said in 1689.10.3.

May the Lord give us understanding.

Amen.

Sing
Are these two questions asking the same thing?
Q. By what outward means are we given redemption?
Q. By what outward means are we to experience the promised blessings?

Dellis
Sing F Lau No.

Sing
Dellis, Brother, please explain. Thank you.

Dellis 
Sing F Lau - The outward means wherewith we receive redemption pertain to our eternal salvation, where the outward means wherewith we enjoy/experience our promised blessings pertain to our temporal salvation.

The first is the work of God, while the latter involves our working out our own salvation.

Sing 
Dellis, Thank you so much. I'm delighted with your answer.

Procreation activity of mankind in the first 15 centuries

Genesis 6
1 ¶And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,
2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

I have been tossing a question in my mind.

In the first 15+ century, up to Noah’s time, what was happening in the procreation activity of mankind?

Here are some scenarios.

1. Sons of men and daughters of men joined themselves as husbands and wives, and they brought forth sons and daughters… (without no further distinction); and their sons and daughters continue the procreation process.

- The simple and plain command to them was “Be fruitful and multiply…”; no caveats or restrictions.

- All happened naturally and normally for 15+ centuries.

2. Sons of God and daughters of God joined themselves as husbands and wives, and brought forth sons and daughters. All their sons and daughters were also godly, and they continued the procreation process.

- Were there non-elect among the descendants of Seth?

- If there were, then who did they marry, godly Sethites?

- If so, did that constitute mixed marriage, then? (i.e. godly Sethites marry ungodly Sethites.)

3. Sons of godless men and daughters of godless men joined themselves as husbands and wives, and brought forth sons and daughters, all their sons and daughters were also ungodly, and they continue the procreation process.

- Were there elect of God among the descendants of Cain?

- If there were, then who did they marry? Godless Cainites?

- If so, did that constitute mixed marriage, then?

With 2 and 3, there was no intermarriage between the so-called ‘godly’ line and the ‘godless’ line. There was a clear segregation for 15+ centuries.  After 15+ centuries of clear segregation, intermarriage between “sons of godly men” and “daughters of godless men” began to happen, leading to the universal moral corruption in the time of Noah.

- This is the most popular explanation of what happened in Genesis 6 – mixed marriage between the sons of the godly line and daughters of the godless line.

Can you think of another scenario?

I would be pleased to hear.

Thanks most kindly.
-------

Paul Howard

Read the Book of 1st Enoch and you'll get some answers, and don't worry, the book was WIDELY known throughout Israel in the 1st century, as it is even quoted in the New Testament by Apostles, moved by the Holy Spirit, to include Jesus' half-brother (Jude). It's NOT scripture, but it will give you the truth of which you seek. The "sethite" view of Genesis 6 is not true to the TEXT of scripture. The mating of good and bad people does not create GIANTS throughout the earth, which were a problem still all the way til the time of David. And these giants weren't "big people". The nephilim were cursed offspring of fallen angels and human women. Fallen angels are fallen angels. Demons are the earthbound spirits of the nephilim. You will also find that the angels who left their first estate also taught men warfare, cosmetics and all kinds of "secret" knowledge that, over millennia, corrupted the whole human race AND the bloodlines with giant DNA. Had Satan's plan succeeded, there could be NO messiah, So much so that Noah was called "perfect in his generations" or untainted blood. It obviously didn't mean Noah was sinless for the text tells you that Noah "found GRACE in the eyes of the Lord." 

The righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ

Romans 3 KJT
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.

Note a few things:

1. “the righteousness of God”

This is the righteousness of God’s own provision; it’s not His attribute of righteousness.

2. “by faith of Jesus Christ”
This is the faithfulness of Jesus Christ in His work of redeeming His people; IT IS the means by which God provided the righteousness needed for the justification of condemned sinners because of their sins, i.e. “Being justified freely by his grace.”

3. “upon all them that believe”
The righteousness of God's own provision has been freely bestowed/applied to all the believing ones;  that is, all the believing ones HAVE BEEN accounted the righteousness of God’s own provision in Jesus. 

Believing is AN EFFECT of justification; i.e. "the just shall live by faith".

Believing is NOT A CONDITION of justification by God; this is a popular fable spawned by the Protestant reformation.

4. Perfect and complete obedience to the commandments of God, i.e. perfect righteousness is the condition for justification by God.
- Christ Jesus ALONE met those conditions. THUS, “Being justified freely by his grace THROUGH the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.

5. Note the SENSE closely.
- "justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."

Your justification is FREELY BY God's grace; it's NOT by your faith!.

Your justification is THROUGH the redemption that is in Christ Jesus; it's NOT THROUGH your faith!.

It's blasphemous to insist otherwise.

Lord, have mercy upon the usurpers.