Question: What is the heaven that fled away?

 

May I inquire?

Rev 20:11 ¶ And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them.

What is the heaven that fled away?

Is it the heaven in Gen 1:1?
"In the beginning, God created the heaven and the earth."

Thank you most kindly.
----------

Danny
I'll admit that I haven't given "the heaven fled away" much consideration. I've always thought it had reference to the glory of God being manifest to such a degree that even the host of heaven had to back away from it. That's a simplistic answer. As to whether it is right, let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. I suspect what others have thought on the matter might be interesting if not enlightening, as I have often discovered insights lurking in places that I have not explored.

Kelvin
In short, I believe the answer to your question is yes, this is the heaven and earth created in Genesis 1:1. Rev 20:11-15 is the great white throne judgement. It is where the non-elect are judged. Notice how John says in verse 12, “I saw the dead”. The regenerate, elect children of God are never referred to as dead in an eternal sense. After the return of Christ, the goats must stand before Him in judgment and the only thing they have to be judged upon is their works (Vs 12-13). Praise God we will never have to stand before the throne of God in the end and answer for our works because Christ stood in our place and was judged by the Father for us. So yes, when Christ returns and the heaven and earth created in Genesis melt in the presence of His glory, we will be with Him body, soul, and spirit and the wicked will be cast into the eternal lake of fire. A supporting text for the “heaven that fled away” is 2 Peter 3:10:

“But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.”

Sing
Thank you for your thoughts.
It seems that:
"from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them" (Rev 20:11) is quite distinct from distinct from
"in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat... burned up." (2Pet 3:10) Here, heavens is in the plural!

Gen 1:1 ¶ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

Rev 20:11 ¶ And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them.

Rev 21:1 ¶ And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

I don't see how 2Pet 3:10 is related to the three passages above.

I read 2Pet 3 as Peter's reminder and warning on the impending destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70.

Shine
Sing F Lau 2 Peter 3:5-7, 10, 12
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?

I think these verses certainly are referring to the whole earth, and both space (universe) and the sky (first heaven) and Judgement Day by their words.

Sing
Shine, I have written a few words here:
https://things-new-and-old.blogspot.com/2009/10/lord-is-not-willing-that-any-should.html
The Lord is not willing that any should perish

Shine
Sing, it does seem you have a lot of evidence for 70 A.D.
Here are quotes from the Letgodbetrue website that defends the belief that it is referring to Final Judgement Day: 

"Peter had specifically identified O.T. prophecies about His return (I Pet 1:3-13).

In context of Christ’s coming, Peter had repeated it in this epistle (1:16,19-21).
"And saying, Where is the promise of his coming (v4)."
The... preterists tying everything to 70 A.D. is denied right here.
"But the heavens and the earth, which are now (v7)."

A covenant change is nonsensical in context and had already occurred! which Paul and Peter had identified well (I Peter 2:4-10; Heb 8:1-13; 12:28-29; etc.).

Elements is here to deceive them (Gal 4:3,9; II Pet 3:10,12). Yes (Eze 14:1-11)!
They deny real events in Rom 8:18-23; Heb 1:10-12; or similar places, for none occurred in 70 A.D., leaving their ideas bankrupt of any purpose or validity.

"Reserved unto fire (v7)."
This reservation is connected to hell as follows next (II Pet 2:4,17; Jude 1:6,13).

"But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing (v8)."
This is the second of three answers to preterists that claim everything in 70 AD.
The first answer is that the material, physical earth has not been destroyed.
The third answer is that the perceived delay is for a very good reason (3:9).

"Not willing that any should perish (v9)."
The perishing is not Jerusalem’s destruction, for that event was 600 miles over the Mediterranean, not in context, and could hardly affect this audience.

The perishing is not practical stumbling, conscience conflict, or offence about liberties, since not in context and far too minor (I Cor 8:11; Ro 14:15).

Peter just used perish in 2:12. Those reprobate false teachers are the unjust that are reserved to the Day of Judgment to be punished (II Pet 2:9,12).

"In the which the heavens shall pass away (v10)."
Jesus Christ’s return, His second coming, will burn the present heavens away.

The flood was similar, destroying the earth, but this the heavens also (5:7-9)..."

A few ways I see the passage as referring to Judgement Day and eternal salvation is that verse 9 says the Lord is not willing that any of the beloved elect perish; so, it is a guarantee that they will not perish because God is not willing.

Just like in Romans 9, it is Gods will for vessels of wrath to perish and vessels of mercy for glory and this cannot be changed.

And verse 15 saying the longsuffering of the Lord IS salvation, meaning to me that salvation is guaranteed by Gods longsuffering for all the elect to be born and saved.

Like 1 John 2:2 saying Jesus IS the propitiation for our sins; not possibly, nor an offer.

Also, verse 4 refers to the beginning of creation when both the heavens and earth were created and so verse 5 refers to the "heavens" (space and sky) and the earth when only the earth was destroyed, already bringing the heavens into context for the following, whereas, the *whole* world perished before; I believe the verses are keeping the same context for the amount of the world that is perishing, that is, the *whole* world will perish again, and that this time, it will include the heavens as well - space and the sky (the whole universe). Also Revelation 21:1-2 would back up a new earth and heaven referring to the after life rather than this world.

Sing
Shine Maybe when I have as much light as he has, I may believe the same way!! 😊

Shine
Sing, I left out a crucial part in my last paragraph about verse 4 that I added if you want to read it again.

Sing 
Shine, I have studied through that whole sermon notes on 2Peter. I can perceive many inconsistencies.  

Speaking with Forked Tongues on Ephesians 2:8-9

The right tongue says, "Saved by grace alone."
The left tongue says, "Saved through my faith in Christ"
They speak of "saved" in the same sense.

 

Ephesians 2
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.

1. It is VERY POPULAR to understand the pronoun 'that' in verse 8 as referring to the antecedent 'faith'. However, this can't possibly be because 'that' is a neuter pronoun, and 'faith' is a feminine noun. 'That' refers back to the specific thing called 'salvation-by-grace-through-faith'! And this thing 'it' is the gift of God. The gift is NOT 'faith'.

2. It is very popular to understand the pronoun 'that' in verse 8 as referring to the antecedent 'faith', and that this faith refers to man's act of believing. This view spawned the synergistic fable that though salvation is by God's free grace alone, yet it is made effectual only through man's activity of believing.

3. It is very popular to say that salvation is by God's grace ALONE from one side of the mouth. It's EQUALLY POPULAR to insist from the other side of the SAME mouth that man's activity of believing is ALSO involved in that same salvation. I wander what is their idea of 'grace alone? Do they say 'clone' or 'alone'? ALAS! man, by nature, is synergist to the core!

4. If salvation by God's free grace ALONE involves man's act of believing TOO, then verse 9 - i.e. 'not of works, lest any man should boast' - is completely repudiated! If man's act of believing is ALSO involved in the salvation by God's free grace ALONE, then 'that' most certainly involves man's work.

5. And the man who believes in order to make the salvation by grace alone effectual to himself can most certainly boast because his work of believing appropriated that salvation.

Christ himself declares that believing in Him is a WORK required by God.

John 6: 28 "Then said they unto him, What shall we do, that we might work the works of God? 29 Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent."

This is THE WORK of God... i.e. the work God requires of His CHILDREN (i.e. the elect that has been regenerated).

If by this point you are not yet bursting with the objection, 'through whose faith, then?' then you are not even thinking. You don't need to read further!

Sing
'Saved by grace through faith' - whose faith? What is that faith?
https://things-new-and-old.blogspot.com/2008/01/saved-by-grace-through-faith-whose.html

Sing
That gift, which is salvation by God's grace through Christ's faith EMBRACES the free gracious divine acts of justification, regeneration, adoption of an elect (who is by nature in the state of condemnation and death) , WITH the gift of the Spirit of adoption to dwell within a child of God.

Sing
If by grace, then it EXCLUDES all human participation.
Eternal salvation EXCLUDES all human participation.
God ALONE purposed eternal salvation for His elect.
Christ ALONE accomplished that eternal salvation for the same.
God, through the Spirit of Christ, applies that eternal salvation to an elect who is dead in trespasses and sins in effectually calling him out of his native state of condemnation and death. Once the eternal salvation is applied freely and sovereignly by God's grace, a man is fit for eternal glory. Nothing more is needed.

Temporal salvation, i.e. that which relates to the temporal well-being of God's children in the life here and now REQUIRES active and conscious human participation. This is the proper sphere of 'human responsibility.' God holds His children responsible for their temporal salvation.

To the Philippians saints, Paul said, "Work out your own salvation with fear and trembling..."

To Timothy, He said, "Take heed unto thyself, and unto the doctrine; continue in them: for in doing this thou shalt both save thyself, and them that hear thee."

PJ Walters
(Sarcasm alert) But that's not fair! I didn't get to choose!

Sing
But every man did get to choose... and he freely and willingly chose LIE and DEATH! <LOL>

Jackson Walsh
The answer to all questions is in verse 7: That in the AGES TO COME he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus. This is all in time that we are "saved" through faith. Yet it is God's grace that makes this possible by saving eternally. You can't have timely without eternal, but you can have eternal without timely.

Mphathe Nemabubuni
Is God alone who draws sinners to be saved by Christ, by believing, yet we have to know that everyone who believes in Christ is by grace, and the Holy Spirit is God at work in us from the first time we believe until our Lord Christ Jesus come back for His church.

If in any way you believe in Christ, isnt yourself who manages to believe in God who lets you believe in His Son Christ Jesus. Is by grace through faith in Christ Jesus.

Charles Page
Injuns say pale face speak with forked tongue! New-fangled baptist preachers speak with forked tongues! They say the unregenerate are l-o-s-t and need to be talked into coming to Christ!

Sing
So Jackson Walsh, is 'saved by grace through faith' speaking of eternal salvation, or eternal salvation and temporal salvation in the same breath? Is there room for your idea of "this is all in time that we are "saved" through faith'?

Whose faith is involved in 'saved by grace through faith'?

Sing
Mphathe Nemabubuni, if words have meaning, you are a classic example of DOUBLE TALK!

You said, "It is God alone who draws sinners to be saved by Christ, by believing."

Let me ask, is God's act of drawing sinners to be saved by Christ CONDITIONED on sinners' believing?

Or is the sinner believing an effect of God ALREADY DRAWN sinners to be saved by Chris?

In your understanding, you are saved by God's grace through YOUR WORK OF BELIEVING in Christ Jesus.

See what I mean - men are synergistic to the core!

Jackson Walsh
Bro. Sing, I feel that it is speaking of both.

Sing
You can now demonstrate that Eph 2:8-9 is speaking of both. Thanks.

Jackson Walsh
I already did. It's in verse 7, explaining how Christ will shew his riches in the AGES TO COME. For by grace are ye saved (eternal) through faith (timely)

Sing
Thanks, Jackson. So you understand 'faith' as man's TIMELY act of believing?

Jackson Walsh
Cognitively, yes.

Jackson Walsh
Good observation Bro. Sing

Sing
May I suggest to you that 'by grace through faith' is referring to the faith of Christ Jesus as per Rom 2:21-24

'By grace' speaks of the manner eternal salvation is bestowed,
'through faith' the basis of that eternal salvation.

21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:

The righteousness of God, the righteousness of God's provision, is by the faith of Jesus Christ, i.e. Christ's faithfulness in rendering perfect obedience to the laws of God.

This righteousness by the faith of Christ is the ground of eternal salvation... i.e. saved by grace through Christ's faith.

No, man's faith plays NIL, ZILCH role in his eternal salvation.
Eternal salvation is applied to him when he is dead in trespasses and sins. 
It's that elementary. 

The battle of that great day of God Almighty.

The battle of that great day of God Almighty.

The battle of that great day of God Almighty.

What is the battle spoken of?
Has it occurred? When?
And what is "that great day of God Almighty"?

Rev 16
12 And the sixth angel poured out his vial upon the great river Euphrates; and the water thereof was dried up, that the way of the kings of the east might be prepared.
13  And I saw three unclean spirits like frogs come out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet.
14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.

Michael Lim
Referring to Roman Catholicism?

Sing
Read the question, Michael!
The BATTLE!

Michael Lim
if looking at verse 13 and verse 14, it seems to be a symbolic. i dont think the battle has started yet since verse 13 and verse 14 is happening now. i am not sure how it relates to verse 12 though.

This battle is to be in the future (date unknown yet)

Mark Thomas
The siege and destruction of Jerusalem. Yes. 69-70 AD.

Craig Kennedy
Yes. I agree warmly Mark.

Michael Lim
Err, but how is ad70 related to deceiving miracles and the drying up of the river Euphrates?

Sing

Michael, a good question deserves a good reply.
Read Mat 24:24-25
24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
25 Behold, I have told you before.

Michael Lim
Err, how about drying up river Euphrates in v12? Should we take this literally or symbolically?

Mark Thomas
Hard to tell Br. Michael. Lots of strange things happened geologically at that time period. Like the eruption of Vesuvius and the burial of Pompey in deadly volcanic ash in 69 AD.

Earthquakes in the USA once caused the Mississippi River to run backwards for a day. Strange things can happen.

Michael Lim
Ah yes, a lot of disasters happen during ad70. Due to these disasters, ppl thought it is happening in the last days

Mark Thomas
It was the last throes of the Levitical priesthood. The end of the Jewish world under the dead letter of the law of Moses. Old things were folded up and put away. A new and living way had already begun.

Michael Lim
I guess drying up the river Euphrates should be in history records. Maybe Jospehus wrote it down, u think?

Joe Chin
If the Euphrates River had dried up, then who were the kings of the East? Would it make any sense? I have looked up the Euphrates River, stretching from north Turkey, through Syria and all the down to modern-day Kuwait. Were there any kings of the East during 70AD?

Michael Lim
It says the ways of the kings of the east are prepared..but what r they preparing for?

Matthew Carl Eastland
The easiest way to understand the prophetic language of Revelation, especially when grand statements like these are made is to look at other similar biblical passages (I Cor 2:13).

My favourite for this kind of thing is Isaiah 13. The trick to this passage is to read verses 2-16 and not outside of that and ask yourself what it means. The things said in many places match almost exactly the same as those used in various parts of Revelation. However, once viewed in context, you understand what they mean.

The huge lesson from that chapter is that you don't need to be looking for some great literal fulfilment of all of the events listed in a prophecy, because the language itself is symbolic to make a point.

Looking at some of the language from Isaiah 13, you have things like God bringing an army together, including from Heaven and with His "sanctified ones" (verses 3-5), destroying the land and the sinners out of the land (v 5 and 9), called the "day of The Lord" (v 6 and 9); the stars of heaven, constellations, and the sun being darkened while the heavens are shaken (v 10 and 13), and punishing the world for its evil (v 11).

However, the entire chapter is about the conquest of Babylon by the Medes and Persians (see verses 1 and 17). None of the events that I just listed happened literally at all, they were all figurative to demonstrate how great and unexpected an event it was.

Charles Page
What of the princes who gather the Kings of the earth to do battle?

Sing
Matthew, the greatness of that event was indicated thus by the Lord in these words, "For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be."

Sing
What of the princes who gather the Kings of the earth to do battle?
++++++++++++++++++

Rev 16
14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.
15 Behold, I come as a thief. Blessed is he that watcheth, and keepeth his garments, lest he walk naked, and they see his shame.
16 And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon.
=========
"He gathered them" - the pronoun "he" refers the the nearest antecedent, i.e. the Lord who said, "Behold, I come as a thief..." The Lord of Hosts - God Almighty - gathered the kings of the earth and of the whole world to execute His judgment.

He gathered them to a place called Armageddon - "the hill or city of Megiddo" - famous in the OT as the place "for two great disasters, the deaths of Saul and Josiah. Hence in Revelation a place of great slaughter, the scene of a terrible retribution upon the wicked."

The slaughter and destruction of wicked Israel was at hand when John wrote Revelation.
The Lord Jesus gave an indication of the magnitude of the tribulation:

21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect’s sake those days shall be shortened.

Charles Page
You can say that again!!!

Sing
What's "that"?

Mathematics and Hermeneutics

 

90% fail in their answers
Solve the following equation.

==================
Why 90% is wrong?

Similarly, why does a greater percentage fail to rightly divide the word of truth, the Holy Scriptures?

Putting aside the trick elements, the mathematical exercise below serves as a good example of the need to rightly divide the word of truth.

Assuming there is an equation, what constitutes the equation is the most basic question to ask. If we don't know the equation, how can we determine the answer?

Different people have different ways of seeing and assuming what constitutes the equation, thus ending up with different answers. Many do so by sight, WITHOUT observing or heeding any mathematical rules. Some do it by observing basic rules. Sometimes the problem lies in the so-called equation is expressed poorly or misleadingly.

Basic assumption: since this is a mathematical matter, basic mathematical rules apply.

So, what's your answer, and show us how did you arrive at it.

What constitutes the equation? Why?

Enjoy the discussion. Read the last comment at the bottom. 

=======

Katija Živković - 12

Kiantoro Lie - 30

Ann Atwood Fraley - 1, you want us to discuss why? because no matter what all the ones at the start add up to, when you multiply the sum by 0, you get 0. Then you add the last 1. The answer is 1.

Katija Živković
But first, you do the multiplying that the adding...
There are no brackets that would indicate you need to do the adding first...

Ann Atwood Fraley
I was doing it so that there was only one pass through the operations. I seem to remember now, singling out the multiplication and then going back through the adding and subtracting. This makes me feel really rusty.

Katija Živković
I wasn't too sure about it either, first I thought 12, than 1, than again 12 🙂

Kiantoro Lie
Don't forget, when you line up all the rows, there are 11 and 11

Katija Živković
Well then it's not math just a trick 😉

Cathy Hightower Comley - 1

Koh Han Seow 
Basic mathematical rule is to do the multiplication first and then addition. So 1x0=0 first and then add up the rest. The answer is 12.

Ann Atwood Fraley
So, two passes through the numbers.

Koh Han Seow
Look carefully again, the answer should be 2 because there are no connections for lines 1 and 2. The answer to 1+1x0+1=2.

Ann Atwood Fraley
Koh Han Seow so you're saying there should be plus signs at the end of each line?

Koh Han Seow
If you put 3 lines together, the answer is 30.

Jim Edwards - The answer is 1

Siong Hee Leong - 30

Catherina Lau - 0

Jerry McMinn - one

Regie Rhodes - 12

===============

Sing F Lau
Some thoughts.
1. No one seems to give a thought to the question, "What constitutes the equation?"
- one can assume that the three separate lines constitute an equation, and work from there. But is that assumption true then?
- one can demonstrate what actually constitutes the equation, and work out the answer from there.

2. To get 30,
- You need to join up the three lines into one like this, thusly:
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 11 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 11 + 1 + 1 x 0 + 1 = 30.

You must falsely assume that there are two 11s. Then it should be written like this:
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 11 +
1 + 1 + 1 + 11 +1 +
1 x 0 + 1 + = ?

Lesson: Don't imagine what's NOT there; don't READ INTO the Scriptures!

3. To get 12,
- You need to ADD two pluses + to the end of the first two lines, thus
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 +
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 +
1 + 1 x 0 + 1 = ?
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1+ 1 + 1 x 0 + 1 = 12.

I suggest this method amounts to ADDING TO SCRIPTURES at best.
On what basis do you do it?

If you can arbitrarily imagine the two pluses, why not other mathematical signs such as "x", "-" or "/". And what if others choose other signs? How?

Imagine putting two "-" signs instead. Or two "/" or "x" signs or a mixture of any two of them!

Lesson: Don't imagine what's NOT there; don't READ INTO the Scriptures!

In terms of an equation, the first line is UNrelated to the second line; the second line is UNrelated to the third line; there is an equation in the third line, i.e. 1 + 1 x 0 + 1 + = ?

Therefore the answer is: 1 + (1 x 0) + 1 = 2.

However, at this stage, some would say the answer is 1. They would add up all the "1" first and then multiply that by "0", i.e. 12 x 0; and then 0 + 1 = 1.

Lesson: hermeneutical principles must be observed. 

Will the LORD dare to parade you and me?

 

#the_LORD_GOd_brooks_no_smearing_of_His_servant_Job

1. The LORD God paraded His servant Job:
"And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? Job 1:8

2. But hateful Satan accused and insinuated:
"Then Satan answered the LORD, and said, Doth Job fear God for nought? Hast not thou made an hedge about him, and about his house, and about all that he hath on every side? thou hast blessed the work of his hands, and his substance is increased in the land.But put forth thine hand now, and touch all that he hath, and he will curse thee to thy face." Job 1:9-11
- He's just a sham; he's in the game only for gain.
Satan couldn't even deny what the LORD said about Job.

3. The LORD God set out to shame the father of lies:
"And the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, all that he hath is in thy power; only upon himself put not forth thine hand. So Satan went forth from the presence of the LORD." Job 1:12
- The sovereign LORD freely granted Satan what he wanted, "all that he hath is in thy power" and not a jot more.
- The sovereign LORD positively limited Satan to protect His servant Job.

4. The shock and awe strategy of Satan:
The destruction came to Job in wave upon wave, wave upon wave. Job 1:13-19.
- Operation Desert Storm learned and applied the same strategy to Iraq, 😉

5. Job's response vindicated the LORD's boast:
"Then Job arose, and rent his mantle, and shaved his head, and fell down upon the ground, and worshipped, And said, Naked came I out of my mother's womb, and naked shall I return thither: the LORD gave, and the LORD hath taken away; blessed be the name of the LORD. In all this Job sinned not, nor charged God foolishly." Job 1:20-22.
- Job's response delivered a few sharp slaps for the accuser and liar.
- Instead of cursing the LORD to His face, Job fell down upon the ground and worshipped the LORD!
- Instead of cursing the LORD to His face, Job freely acknowledged the LORD's sovereignty in giving and in taking away.
- Instead of cursing the LORD to His face, Job blessed the name of the LORD!

Job was no robot; he was a man of flesh and blood just like any man or woman saved by the grace of God. He felt the great and immense loss, YET  Job sinned not, nor charged God foolishly.

Don't mess around with the LORD's people.

Even Satan, when he took the LORD's bait, was thoroughly humiliated as an accuser and liar.

Will the LORD dare to parade you and me?

O LORD, have mercy and grant grace and strength for each occasion. Amen.