Sir, what do you think of this QnA?
Q. By what outward means are we given
redemption?
A. Christ gives redemption by His word, the
sacraments & prayer.
------
The above is a catechism question and answer
by a well-known Reformed minister.
What do you think of the question and answer?
If you have understood the gospel of Christ,
the errors and confusion in both the question and answer will glare* at you;
otherwise, they are smooth words.
*glare - stare angrily or fiercely.
Sing F Lau
Redemption is paid with His righteous life
and blood on the cross. Not sacraments, not prayers.
--------
Yes, the redemption purposed by God the
Father for His elect was accomplished/secured by God the Son through His
sinless life of obedience (thus securing the righteousness needed) and His
atoning death (thus bearing away the wages of sin) on the cross.
The question, "Christ gives redemption
or God the Father gives redemption?" is a little bit like asking,
"Mother gives life or the father gives life?"
As I have tried to explain, both the mother
and the father work in unity and harmony to give life.
In the covenant of redemption, the three
Persons of the Triune God covenanted to work in perfect unity and harmony to
execute everything needed for the eternal salvation of the elect, to bring them
to glory.
Yes, in the redemption of God's elect, only
divine activities are involved, excluding every outward means imaginable;
otherwise, salvation by grace is denied and repudiated.
Outward means require human involvement to
use those means; i.e. they require human work.
Only those to whom the redemption has been
freely bestowed by divine grace are capable of utilising those outward means to
work out their own salvation... for their temporal salvation.
Outward means belong to the sphere of temporal salvation.
Sing
Isa 1:18a "Come now, and let us reason
together, saith the LORD..."
Let's consider the question first.
Q. By what outward means are we given
redemption?
a. Some word meanings:
- "redemption" - deliverance, esp.
from the just penalty of sin; finally from the eternal lake of fire. This
redemption is by Christ's life and death alone: Heb 9:12 "Neither by the
blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the
holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us."
- "means" - something used to
attain/achieve a result; in this case, the result is to be given redemption.
b. The question assumes/presupposes a few
things:
- that redemption is given by some outward
means.
- that a man without redemption is capable of
using those means to be given redemption.
- that redemption is given CONDITIONED upon a
man (WITHOUT redemption yet) using the outward means provided.
c. Some questions
Q. What is the spiritual state of a man who
has not been given redemption by Christ?
Q. Is such a man capable of using the means
provided in order to be given redemption?
Q. Supposing such a man is capable, does his
using the means provided to receive the redemption constitute some works on his
part?
1Pe 1:13
Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be
sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the
revelation of Jesus Christ.
Sing
One asked:
Christ gives redemption, or God the Father
gives redemption?
Redemption is paid with His righteous life
and blood on the cross.
Not sacraments, not prayers.
----------
Good question.
The answer provided specifically stated that
it is Christ who gives redemption through the means stated.
Generally, the three Persons in the Triune
God act in unison and harmony in the redemption of the elect.
- God the Father purposed the redemption,
- God the Son accomplished the redemption
purposed by God the Father, and
- God the Spirit applies (simple present
tense) the redemption to each elect (while dead in trespasses and sins); this
work continues until the last elect has been effectually called to redemption.
The three Persons of the Godhead are
intimately involved in giving/bestowing/applying the redemption to an elect in
his native state of sins and condemnation in Adam.
The 1689.10.1 CoF put this succinctly.
"Those whom God hath predestined unto
life, He is pleased in His appointed and accepted time, effectually to call, by
His Word and Spirit, out of that state of sin and death in which they are by
nature, to grace and salvation by Jesus Christ..."
This is when and how redemption IS GIVEN or
APPLIED to an elect:
- at God's appointed and accepted time...
- an elect is in his native state, i.e. in
sin, death, and condemnation in Adam
"... by His Word and Spirit" refer
to the Second and Third Person's of the Triune God."
Many RBs ignorantly take "His Word"
as referring to the Scriptures or the preached word. This is clearly without
common sense, i.e. stupid. (You can think of some obvious reasons). This fable
is also repudiated by what is said in 1689.10.3.
May the Lord give us understanding.
Amen.
Sing
Are these two questions asking the same
thing?
Q. By what outward means are we given
redemption?
Q. By what outward means are we to experience
the promised blessings?
Dellis
Sing F Lau No.
Sing
Dellis, Brother, please explain.
Thank you.
Dellis
Sing F Lau - The outward means wherewith we
receive redemption pertain to our eternal salvation, where the outward means
wherewith we enjoy/experience our promised blessings pertain to our temporal
salvation.
The first is the work of God, while the latter
involves our working out our own salvation.
Sing
Dellis, Thank you so much. I'm
delighted with your answer.
