On Dec 15, 2007, at 5:39 PM, sing wrote:
Dear Dr Bee,
If
you are still studying the Scriptures, here is something for you to think
about. I
have a question. Please give me your thoughts.
Forward
it to your RBs friends if you wish
I
look forward to some credible explanation.
sing
Subject:
Gen 15:1-6, Romans 4:3-5 and 1689.11.1
Genesis
15
1 ¶ After these things the word of the LORD
came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy
exceeding great reward.
2 ¶ And Abram said, Lord GOD, what wilt thou
give me, seeing I go childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of
Damascus?
3 And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast
given no seed: and, lo, one born in my house is mine heir.
4 And, behold, the word of the LORD came unto
him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of
thine own bowels shall be thine heir.
5 And he brought him forth abroad, and said,
Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and
he said unto him, So shall thy seed be.
6 And he believed in the LORD; and he [the
LORD] counted it [Abraham's act of believing] to him [Abraham] for
righteousness.
Comment: This passage speaks of the LORD imputing/accounting Abraham's faith to Abraham. This passage speaks of the IMPUTATION OF FAITH, the act of believing. This is quite obvious. But do you agree?
Romans
4:
3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham
believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not
reckoned of grace, but of debt.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth
on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith [act of believing] is counted for
righteousness.
Comment:
This passage speaks of the LORD - who justifies the ungodly by imputing
/accounting the believer's faith to the believer. This passage speaks of the
IMPUTATION OF FAITH, the act of believing. This is quite plain too, but do you
agree?
1689
Chapter 11 on Justification says,
"Those
whom God effectually calleth, He also freely justifieth,(1) not by infusing
righteousness into them, but by pardoning their sins, and by accounting and
accepting their persons as righteous;(2) not for anything wrought in them, or
done by them, but for Christ's sake alone;(3) NOT BY imputing faith itself, the
act of believing, or any other evangelical obedience to them, as their
righteousness; but by imputing Christ's active obedience unto the whole law,
and passive obedience in His death for their whole and sole righteousness,(4)
they receiving and resting on Him and His righteousness by faith, which faith
they have not of themselves; it is the gift of God.(5)
The Framers emphatically state that Justification at effectual calling DOES NOT INVOLVE the imputation of faith, the act of believing.
IMPUTATION OF BELIEVER'S FAITH is VERY REMOTELY JUSTIFICATION.
IMPUTATION
OF CHRIST'S RIGHTEOUSNESS - by virtue of Christ's active and passive obedience
- IS JUSTIFICATION.
The essence of Justification is declaring a guilty condemned criminal not guilty but righteous by the imputation of the righteousness of Jesus Christ.
Genesis 15 and Romans 4 passages speak of the imputation of the believer's faith to the believer. They say nothing of the imputation of Christ's righteousness to the ungodly.
My
question:
Why
do the Reformed (and the Arminian as well!) folks ALWAYS read those two
passages as speaking of the justification of the guilty condemned sinner before
God?
If
Gen 15 is speaking of Abraham's justification before God, then Abraham would
necessarily be an UN-justified UNGODLY man in Gen 12-14. But was Abraham an
unjustified ungodly man in Gen 12-14?
Is
Gen 15 speaking of Abraham's justification by God?
God justifies the UNGODLY. How does God justify the UNGODLY?
Faith
justifies the BELIEVER. How does faith justify the BELIEVER?
desiring
to learn,
sing
=======
Dec 27, 2007, 9:21 PM
Dear Brother Sing,
...
...
I'd
better go home soon. Oh, but just before
I sign off I would like to ask for your understanding of Psalm 106:30-31 (cf
Gen 15:5-6). This is in response to your
previous email on the Genesis passage. I
am sorry that I cannot often give an in-depth reply to your posted question as I
have found myself going home later and later due to the many email messages I
have to reply to, usually at the end of work each day. But keep the questions coming for they serve
to stimulate my mind to think even though you may not get to hear my
answer. Thanks.
In
His love,
Bee
=======
Dec 31, 2007, 12:15 AM
Dear Dr Bee,
You
asked about Phinehas in Ps 106:30-31 and his great exploit for the Lord.
This
is what I wrote in the 'Pruning' book. I copy and paste it here.
"Phinehas’
courageous act was an act of faith and it was accounted to him for
righteousness – “Then stood up Phinehas, and executed judgment: and so the
plague was stayed. And that was counted unto him for righteousness unto all
generations for evermore” Ps 106:30-31. It was certainly not the using of a
javelin on the two whoremongers that effected his legal justification, i.e.,
his right standing before God. There was no imputation of the righteousness of
Christ to Phinehas here! It was his great act of faith that was counted unto
him for righteousness – he was blessed to experience the blessedness of his
justified and righteous state, evidenced by his faithful act.
"Faith is not merely the sole instrument to evidence the justified state of the person by free grace. Faith is also the only means for an elect to enter into a conscious experience and enjoyment of the benefits of salvation, even ‘those benefits which in this life accompany or flow from justification, adoption and sanctification. They include “assurance of God’s love, peace of conscience, joy in the Holy Spirit, increase of grace, and perseverance therein to the end” (SC Q.36). By faith in Christ the Saviour, a justified man experiences the blessedness of all sins forgiven at justification; he experiences the blessedness of the righteousness of Christ imputed at effectual call. These blessings are accounted to him by God’s free grace. By faith in Jesus Christ, a regenerated elect of God ‘really and personally’ enters into the enjoyment and experience of the ‘liberties and privileges’ as adopted children of God. This is what Gen 15:6 speaks of concerning Abram. Abram was already a justified man in Gen 12-14, [and evidenced many works of faith.]
"This
is what is meant when the Confession says, “They receiving and resting on Him
and His righteousness by faith, which faith they have not of themselves; it is
the gift of God” 1689.11.1. This is justification experienced through the
instrument of faith. This is not justification secured through the instrument
of faith – i.e., right standing with God is NOT secured through the instrument
of faith, double imputation of sins and righteousness is NOT through the
instrument of faith – as espoused and defended by the leaders of these seven
churches."
I hope the paragraphs answer your question.
Ps 106:30-31 is another nail into the coffin of the heretical idea - legal justification is through the instrumentality of the believer's faith - espoused and defended by the leaders of these seven churches.
learning
still,
sing
======
Mon, Dec 31, 2007, 11:15 PM
Dear Brother Sing,
Sorry to miss your explanation in the 'Pruning' book. Yes, it's interesting to me to note the same phrase: "that was counted unto him for righteousness" being used to describe the consequence of both Abraham's faith and Phinehas' action (or work). If this phrase is used to refer to 'legal justification' or 'eternal salvation' by faith as claimed in the case of Abraham, then it would have to mean also salvation by work in the case of Phinehas - which obviously we (apart from the RC) do not believe in.
How then do the proponents of those using Abraham's example to support justification by faith explain Ps 106:30-31 regarding God's response to Phinehas' action?
Sitting at His feet,
Bee
======
Jan 1, 2008, 1:11 AM
Dear Dr Bee,
May
our Lord and Saviour bless the year ahead.
Your
conclusion "then it would have to mean also...." is a good example of
rightly dividing the word of truth.
I wish some reformed Baptists would think like you do. But they don't, and refuse to!
Your
question, "How then do the proponents of those using Abraham's example to
support justification (LEGAL) by faith explain Ps 106:30-31 ..."
First,
the simple answer, is that the passage does not even come into their consideration. I
have not come across a single instance where Ps 106:30-31 is considered by the
proponents of justification (legal) by faith!!! That passage, as you rightly
conclude, demolishes their grievous error.
Second, perhaps you might want to direct your question to your pastor and those associated with him. I would like to know his answer if he is brave and honest enough to venture an answer.
So far, no reformed Baptists in all the whole world have responded to my simple and honest inquiry on the relationship on Gen 15:1-6, Romans 4:1-8 and 1689.11.1 And the reason is very simple... answering the question would state the truth of God as well as exposing their grievous and gospel repudiating error. It is no small error... after all the reformed people have always affirmed that 'the doctrine of justification determines the standing or the falling of a church.' If it had been a minor matter, I would have KEPT my mouth shut, and let the fire burn within.
sing
