Romans
2:
14
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature [phusis] the things
contained in the law, these,
having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15
Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also
bearing witness, and their thoughts
the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)
16
In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to
my gospel.
-
phusis: a mode of feeling and acting which by long habit has become nature,
habitual.
A
Basic premise:
I
think you and I will need to agree that 'the work of the law written upon their
hearts' is stated as the explanation of why those particular Gentiles "do by nature the things contained in the
law." [Apostle Paul is speaking
of those Gentiles who "do by nature the things contained in the law." Not
all Gentiles do by nature the
things contained in the law. All men, whether Jews or Gentiles, do by nature
the things condemned by the
law!]
These Gentiles are doers of the law because the work of the law has been
written in their hearts; the
former is the effect of the latter; the latter is the explanation for the former.
If we cannot agree here, then we
cannot proceed. If you do agree, then proceed.
Some
Questions
Q1.
What truth is Apostle Paul demonstrating with the illustration of these specific
Gentiles here?
Q2.
By 'the Gentiles' who "do by nature the things contained in the law"
(v14) who does apostle Paul refer to?
-
all the mankind generally, those whom he has described in Rom 1:18ff, or
- to one
of the two groups of mankind
mentioned in Rom 2:7-10?
Q3.
By 'the Gentiles' does apostle Paul mean the Gentiles who are among those
mentioned in verse 2:7;10
- among
the group who are the doers of the law?
-
Are verses 7 and 10 describing those who are doers of the law (v13)? Do they
have the work of the law written
upon their heart?
-
Are verses 8 and 9 describing those who are doers of the law or breakers of the
law? Do they have the work of
the law written upon their heart?
Q4.
Is "the work of the law written in their hearts" [i.e. those Gentiles that are
doers of the law] a reference to that
innate moral attribute stamped upon their nature as moral creatures made in the
image of God?
-
If it is, then this work would be true of every man, whether Jew or Gentile,
wouldn't it?
-
If it is, then every man, whether Jew or Gentile, would be a doer of the law,
wouldn't it? (since being a doer
of the law is directly attributed to the work of the law written upon their
hearts as men?
-
If it is, then who are those described in v8 and 9 - are they the doers of the
law also, or are they the breakers of
the law? Do they have the work of the law written upon their heart also?
-
If it is, then why are there two distinct groups mentioned in verses 7-10?
-
If it is, then every man has this innate moral attribute, why isn't every man
a doer of the law, the Jews as well
as the Gentiles??? Who are those described in verses 8 and 9?
-
If it is NOT, then what is this work of the law written in their hearts that
distinguishes them from the rest of the
fallen humanity whom apostle Paul has described in 1:18-32?
Q5.
Is "the work of the law written in their hearts" [i.e. those Gentiles that are
doers of the law] a reference to that
divine work at the effectual call to grace and salvation in Jesus Christ of these Gentiles?
-
If it is, does this divine work explain why these particular Gentiles are
doers of the law in contrast to the general
mankind who obeys unrighteousness and does evil?
-
If it is, does this divine work explain the NEW nature of those Gentiles, by
which those Gentiles do by nature
the things on the law?
-
If it is, how did God perform this divine work? Was it through having the
written law of God?
-
If it is, how did God perform this divine work? Was it through the instrument
of some human activities like preaching?
-
Does the Scripture anywhere speak and declare this divine work of writing the
law upon the mind and heart of
man? Check Heb 8:10, John 6:44-45.
Q6. How did/does/will God bring His elect to grace and salvation in those far-flung corners of the world among all the people and kindreds and tongues and nations of the world where no preachers have ever been, or where many preachers have been but preached another gospel?
Q7.
Does the work of God in effectually calling His elect to grace and salvation
depend on having the opportunity to hear the gospel or not? What does Rom 2:11-16 say?
-
If it does, would the judgment of God still be impartial with those who never
had the gospel preached to them or those who had only the perverted and false gospels preached to them?
-
If it does, wouldn't the judgment be partial towards those who have the
opportunity/ability hear, and partial
against those who have no opportunity/ability to have or hear the gospel?
-
Would the righteous judgment still be according to each man's deeds?
Q8.
What does apostle Paul want to VINDICATE by pointing out these Gentiles who are
doers of the law who
have never possessed or heard of the law of God, who never had privileges the
Jews had???
[THE
answer: eternal salvation is by God's free and sovereign grace alone, without
any human or gospel preaching
instrumentality! Preaching the gospel is for the instruction of those already
saved that they may be made
wise unto their salvation, instructed concerning the truth of their
instruction.]
Q9.
Are these Gentiles the doers of the law because of the divine work of circumcising
their hearts (Rom 2:28-29)
WITHOUT the human instrumentality of gospel preaching? What made the
difference?
-
Does circumcision made by hand bring about such change among the Jews?
Q10.
How are these Gentiles in Rom 2:14 related to those mentioned in Acts 10:34-35?
-
"Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, of a truth I perceive that God is
no respecter of persons: but in every
nation, he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, IS accepted with
him."
-
What accounts for those in every nation who fear God, and work righteousness,
but have never had the gospel
at all?
[THE
answer: The direct and immediate work of God in effectually calling them out of
their native state of sin
and death to that of grace and salvation in Jesus Christ - this divine work explains why
such fear God and works righteousness.
They have no knowledge of their salvation yet... that has to come from the
gospel ministry!]
Let
there be no misunderstanding:
Don't
misunderstand me. The preaching of the gospel is vital... but vital ONLY for the
purpose for which God has
ordained it. And what is that purpose? Is it an instrument in the effectual
call of the dead in trespasses to eternal
life, OR is it an instrument for the instruction and conversion to the truth of
those already effectually called
to eternal life?
Apostle
Paul wrote to those in Rome he described as "beloved of God" (1:7),
"the called of Christ Jesus" (1:6),
and "called saints" (1:7). And yet he was very desirous and determined to have the gospel of God preached
to these very same people.
-
What does this tell us about Apostle Paul's view on "gospel
regeneration," a common and popular view of the
reformed people today?
Rom
4:16
Therefore
it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure
to all the seed; not to that
only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham;
who is the father of us all,
In
what exact manner to the end that the promise (of salvation) might be sure to
all the seed?
-
In what sense “it is of faith” so that the promise (of salvation) might be sure
to all the seed?
-
In what sense “be by grace” so that the promise (of salvation) might be sure to
all the seed?
