God had great faith in Jesus, His only begotten
https://www.facebook.com/sing.f.lau/posts/132043863521027
December
1, 2010
God
had great faith in Jesus, His only begotten Son. "This is my beloved Son,
in whom I am well pleased... be hearing him."
For
thousands of years, God had freely justified multitudes of His elect and gave
them eternal life based on what the promised seed of the woman would accomplish
when the eternal Word was made flesh in time and begotten the Son of God.
======
Janet
Hill Bell
I
hate to hear Preachers say that God has faith in US......NO he doesn't! Jesus
is God's EVERYTHING & Christians are blessed if they know that. God had one
answer for the world......Jesus Christ!! Brother Sing.....well said....again!
Sing
F Lau
How
could God justly forgive the sins of His people prior to Christ making actual
payment for them?
Ro
3:24-25
24
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ
Jesus: 25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his
blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past,
through the forbearance of God..."
In
the above text...
-
through whose faith in Christ blood?
-
what do 'sins that are past' refer to? Whose sins? 'Past' with reference to
what?
-
is 'his righteousness' referring to God's attribute of righteousness, or to
God's provision of righteousness?
-
what is the Divine forbearance related to? What would have happened if there
was no such divine forbearance?
Uncle
Joe
I'll
give you my view of the passage.
I
believe Paul is referring to all the sins of God's elect that were committed
prior to Calvary. God didn't save His people in the Old Testament era one way
and now in the New Testament era another way. He saves all of His chosen ones
alike.
If
this be the case, God relied on the finished work of Christ for the salvation
of His Old Testament people just as He does for us. From a human, temporal
perspective, Paul could describe this work as the Father's faith in His Son's
blood long before the Son came and shed His blood.
"Faith"
in this sense certainly does not carry the notion of hope, or of trusting what
we do not know. It rather carries the idea of perfect reliance. The Father
applied the finished work of Christ to His elect in regeneration, fully relying
on the work, although it was yet future.
Hope this helps
David
-
through whose faith in Christ blood?
A.
God the Father’s – Knowing that the Son would be faithful to die for the sins
of many.
-
what do 'sins that are past' refer to? 'Past' with reference to what?
A.
Sins of God’s children prior to the coming of Christ.
-
is 'his righteousness' God's attribute of righteousness, or God's provision of
righteousness?
A.
Christ’s righteousness as the only acceptable sacrifice.
- what
is the Divine forbearance related to?
A.
God tolerated the sins of His as though they were already forgiven, even though
the actual act of redemption had not been accomplished.
Bernie
Br.
Joe, you have exactly expressed my understanding of Paul's language in these
precise verses (Rom. 3:24-25).
People
err when they attempt to define the Father's faith in His Son by applying
Paul's faith definition that is labeled in Hebrews 11:1. This particular verse
(11:1) describes the faith of the regenerated elect, not the faith God had in
His Son. God's faith is that confidence and reliance had in His Son by reason
of God's perfect, absolute knowledge.
Man's
faith is variable (neither consistent, nor absolute); whereas, God's faith is
constant and is with the absolute perfection of certainty. Brother Joe's post
is with get clarity of truth. Many thanks for it.
I appreciate this needed discussion.
Adam
Wells
Thanks
for your post Bro Sing. Just today I saw someone post this verse and then go on
to say that "past sins" refers only to the sins of believers prior to
regeneration. I appreciate your explanation.
