John 6:45 "It is
written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man
therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto
me."
Permit me to ask a
few questions. Please assist me in rightly understanding the passage.
Thank you.
1. Who are
"they" that shall be all taught of God?
2. How shall they be
taught of God?
3. Is "they
all" and "every man" co-extensive?
4. Is the hearing
the direct result of having been taught of God?
5. Is the learning
the direct result of having heard what is taught by God?
6. Is the coming
unto Christ the direct effect of being taught of God?
7. What is the
coming spoken of?
8. Is there a
distinction in the expressions "taught of God" and "hath learned
of the Father"?
9. Is a 3rd party
needed for a man to be taught of God?
10. Is a 3rd party
needed for a man to hear and learn of the Father?
Ask your question if
you have any.
Thanks.
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Bill Taylor
1. If a man is
taught of God, can the teaching be imperfect or misleading?
2. If the teaching
is not imperfect or misleading, which Jesus will a man come unto? (Which
version of the salvation which is in Christ Jesus?)