"There were giants..."

"There were giants...
... the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown"

"There were giants... the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown" - the offspring of the so called mixed-marriage between godly men and ungodly women!

What were they mighty, and renown for? What was so gigantic about them?

Gen 6
1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,
2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
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Most likely you have read this passage recently, in your Bible reading programme.

So, you were told, and you have believed it without further question: that godly men ("sons of God") foolishly married the ungodly women ("daughters of men"), and as a result literal giants were born to such union - ["giants were in the earth in those days", in those days WHEN the sons of God took the daughters of men as wives], and those giants, "the same [giants] became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

In what sense were they mighty men and men of renown? Read divine commentary in the next verse.

Why was it that godly men marrying ungodly women - supposing that was indeed the case! - had such catastrophic and devastating CORRUPTING effect upon the whole human race? "The wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually."

Why hadn't the union of ungodly men with ungodly women prior Gen 6:1, or all their unions after the flood produced anything of the same effect?

And if it was just the mixed marriage between the godly and the ungodly, was there a divine command forbidding such before Gen 6:1? Surely one would expect an explicit command against such.

Strange wasn't it... that whole generation of the so-called GODLY "sons of God" got wiped off the face of the earth by mere mixed marriage!

And why would the Scriptures designate men who acted with such ungodliness - marrying ungodly women - with such a lofty title as the "sons of God"?

Or is the passage speaking of something far more sinister, i.e. satanic?

Are you thinking yet?

Take a look here at some interesting issues raised and dealt with.

https://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=10205631696127192&set=a.1182086067794.2026451.1097484914&type=3&theater