Monday, March 4, 2024

When did God IMPUTE Christ's righteousness to the elect?

When did God IMPUTE Christ's righteousness to the elect? 


https://web.facebook.com/photo/?fbid=10203814338454386&set=a.1182086067794

A good brother asked:
Q. "When does the imputation of God's righteousness occur for the elect? Amongst those who claim to hold to Sovereign Grace, there is a difference of opinion on this issue. Your considered answers to this question will be welcome."

The many answers given by those who claim to hold to "sovereign grace" (e.g. reformed baptists) plainly evidence that they don't have any clue!

So I suggested this:
Brother, perhaps starting another thread with this question will help:

Q. When was the sin of Adam IMPUTED [sic] to all represented by him?
Maybe I offer some suggestions to help:
- the moment Adam sinned in the garden.
- the moment one is conceived.
- the moment one committed a sin.
- none of the above but this... i.e (state your answer)

The reason is simple: there is an EXACT parallel in the imputation of Adam's sin to all represented by him, and the imputation of Christ's righteousness to all represented by Him.

Rom 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

There was a ONE once-for-all imputation of Adam's sin to all represented by him - at his transgression in the garden.
EVEN SO...
There was a ONE once-for-all imputation of Christ's righteousness to all represented by Christ - at his death and resurrection.

What was legally IMPUTED to all is APPLIED personally to each repressented by Adam the moment they have their personal existence - i.e. the moment each is conceived. Each is conceived in sin!.
EVEN SO...
What was legally IMPUTED to all is APPLIED personally to each represented by Christ the moment they have their personal existence - i.e. the moment each is effectually called out of their native state of sin and death to that of grace and salvation in Christ.

I met a very STUPID (i.e. lacking common sense] but HAUGHTY man (who prides himself as a reformed theologian) who accused me of believing in MULTIPLE imputations of Christ's righteousness! But that is just his figment of imagination!

Probably not stupid, just completely confused, or unable to differentiate between the legal imputation of Christ's righteousness and the vital application of the same!

Craig Kennedy
I must admit if that is what you meant by legal imputation and vital application I can agree with this.